Question

If $6$ oil tankers can be filled by a pipe in $4\frac{1}{2}$ hours, how long does the pipe take to fill $4$ such oil tankers?

Answer 1

According to the question,

$6$ oil tankers can be filled by a pipe $=4\frac{1}{2}=\frac{9}{2}hours$

$1$ oil tanker can be filled by a pipe $=\frac{9}{2\times 6}hours$

$4$ oil tankers can be filled by a pipe

$=\frac{9}{2\times 6}\times 4$

$=\frac{9}{6}\times 2$

$=\frac{18}{6}=3hours$

Hence, this is the answer.