If f(x)=⎧⎪
⎪
⎪⎨⎪
⎪
⎪⎩sin{cosx}x−π2,x≠π21,x=π2, where {.} represents the fractional part function,
then limx→π/2f(x) is?
A
−1
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B
1
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C
Does not exist
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D
4
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Solution
The correct option is C Does not exist We have, LHL=limx→π/2−f(x)=limx→π/2−sin{cosx}x−π/2 =limh→0sin{cos(π2−h)}π/2−h−π/2=limh→0sin{sinh}−h =limh→0sin(sinh−[sinh])−h =limh→0sin(sinh)−h =limh→0sin(sinh)sinh×sinh−h=−1 ⇒limx→π/2−f(x)=−1 RHL=limx→π/2+f(x)=limx→π/2+sin{cosx}x−π/2 =limh→0sin{cos(π/2+h)}π2+h−π2 =limh→0sin{−sinh}h=limh→0sin(1−sinh)h→∞