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Question

If f(x)=(ax2+b)3,bR,aR{0} and g(x) is a function such that f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x, then g(x)=
(Given that f and g are bijective functions)

A
x1/3+ba
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B
x3ba
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C
x1/3ba
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D
x3+ba
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Solution

The correct option is C x1/3ba
It is given f(x) is bijective function, which is possible iff domain and range are restricted.

f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x is possible only when g is the inverse of f and vice-versa.
f(x)=(ax2+b)3
If g(x)=f1(x)
Let y=f(x)=(ax2+b)3
±y1/3ba=x
Clearly taking positive or negative sign will give us the inverse function. But we have to select exactly one of them, because we know that inverse of a function is unique. Based on options we have to take +sign
g(x)=x1/3ba

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