Let xp−x be denoted by f(x); then
f(x+1)−f(x)=(x+1)p−(x+1)−(xp−x)
=pxp−1+p(p−1)1.2xp−2+....+px
= a multiple of p, where p is prime
∴f(x+1)=f(x)+ a multiple of p.
If f(x) is divisible by p, so also is f(x+1); but
f(2)=2p−2=(1+1)p−2,
and this is a multiple of p where p is prime; therefore f(3) is divisible by p, therefore f(4) is divisible by p, and so on; thus the proposition is true universally.