If tan−1(x)+tan−1(y)+tan−1(z)=π, then 1xy+1yz+1zx=
A
0
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B
1
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C
1xyz
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D
xyz
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Solution
The correct option is B1 tan−1(x)+tan−1(y)+tan−1(z)=π ⇒tan−1x+tan−1y=π−tan−1z ⇒x+y1−xy=−z⇒x+y=−z+xyz ⇒x+y+z=xyz
Dividing by xyz, we get 1yz+1xz+1xy=1.
Note: Students should remember this question as a formula.