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Question

(ln x)1dx(ln x)2dx is equal to

A
x(ln x)1+c
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B
x(ln x)2+c
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C
x(ln x)+c
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D
x(ln x)2+c
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Solution

The correct option is B x(ln x)1+c
Consider the indefinite integral
(lnx)1dx

(lnx)1dx=(lnx)1(1)dx

Applying integration by parts,

(lnx)1(1)dx=(lnx)11dx[ddx(lnx)11dx]dx

=x(lnx)1[1(lnx)21xx]dx+c
=x(lnx)1[1(lnx)21xx]dx+c
=x(lnx)1+(lnx)2dx+c

(lnx)1dx=x(lnx)1+(lnx)2dx+c

(lnx)1dx(lnx)2dx=x(lnx)1+c

The answer: Option A.

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