Is it true that the amount of inertia is more when the amount of force applied on a body is more and less then less?
Is it true that the amount of inertia is more when the amount of force applied on a body is more and less then less?
Inertia is the tendency of masses to maintain a constant velocity. It does not depend upon Force or anything else. There is a logical problem about having something which causes nothing to happen - this is exactly what inertia is!
The amount of inertia that an object possesses is proportional to its mass . However, inertia is not the same thing as mass or momentum. The mass of an object can be measured by observing the extent of its inertia. This is done by measuring the amount of force required to produce a certain acceleration.
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
Mass and Inertia are interrelated.
Similarly, by Newton’s second law of motion,
If F represents the net force applied to an object of mass m, then its acceleration a=F/m…. Mass and Inertia are directly related whereas, Inertia and force are also interrelated indirectly but inertia does not depend on force applied.
Mass can be determined from inertia(experimental) and through mass and acceleration, the value of force can be obtained.
No. Inertia doesn't depend on force. It is considered as a ability of body to retain his State.I mean that ability of a body to resist to force on it.
The amount of inertia that an object possesses is proportional to its mass . However, inertia is not the same thing as mass or momentum. The mass of an object can be measured by observing the extent of its inertia. This is done by measuring the amount of force required to produce a certain acceleration.
An object at rest stays at rest and an object in motion stays in motion with the same speed and in the same direction unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
Mass and Inertia are interrelated.
Similarly, by Newton’s second law of motion,
If F represents the net force applied to an object of mass m, then its acceleration a=F/m…. Mass and Inertia are directly related whereas, Inertia and force are also interrelated indirectly but inertia does not depend on force applied.
Mass can be determined from inertia(experimental) and through mass and acceleration, the value of force can be obtained.
No. Inertia doesn't depend on force. It is considered as a ability of body to retain his State.I mean that ability of a body to resist to force on it.
