Let f(x) be a continuous and differentiable function on [0,1], such that f(0)≠0andf(1)=0. We can conclude that there exists cϵ (0,1) such that
A
c.f′(c)−f(c)=0
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
f′(c)+c.f(c)=0
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
f′(c)−c.f(c)=0
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
c.f′(c)+f(c)=0
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is Bc.f′(c)+f(c)=0 Consider ϕ(x)=x.f(x) Clearly Rolle's theorem is applicable to ϕ(x) on xϵ[0,1] ∴ There exists Xϵ(0,1)suchthatϕ′(x)=0 ⇒c.f′(x)+f(x)=0