CameraIcon
CameraIcon
SearchIcon
MyQuestionIcon
MyQuestionIcon
0
You visited us 0 times! Enjoying our articles? Unlock Full Access!
Question

Let f(x)=limh0(sin(x+h))ln(x+h)(sinx)lnxh then f(π2) is

A
Equal to 0
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
B
Equal to 1
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
lnπ2
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
Non - existent
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution

The correct option is A Equal to 0
Assuming g(x)=(sinx)lnx
So,
f(x)=g(x)
Taking log of g(x),
lng(x)=lnx×lnsinxg(x)g(x)=lnsinxx+lnx×cotxg(x)=(sinx)lnx[lnsinxx+lnx×cotx]f(π2)=g(π2)=0

flag
Suggest Corrections
thumbs-up
0
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
similar_icon
Related Videos
thumbnail
lock
Derivative from First Principles
MATHEMATICS
Watch in App
Join BYJU'S Learning Program
CrossIcon