Let f(x)=x+sinx. If g denotes the inverse function of f, the value of g′(π4+1√2) is equal to
A
√2−1
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
√2+1√2
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
2−√2
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
D
√2+1
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is D2−√2 Given that f(x)=x+sinx On differentiating we get, f′(x)=1+cosx=dydx But we know g is inverse function of f, ∴g′(y)=dxdy=11+cosx y=π4+1√2=x+sinx ∴x=π4 ∴g′(π4+1√2)=11+1√2=√2√2+1=2−√2