Let g(x)=1+x−[x] and f(x)=⎧⎨⎩−1x<00x=01x>0. Then for all x,f[g(x)] is equal to
A
x
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B
1
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C
f(x)
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D
g(x)
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Solution
The correct option is B1 We have, g(x)={1+n−n=1,x=n∈Z1+n+k−n=1+k,x=n+k where n∈Z,0<k<1 Now f[g(x)]=⎧⎨⎩−1g(x)<00g(x)=01g(x)>1 Clearly, g(x)>0 for all x. So f[g(x)]=1, for all x.