Question

# Mean and variance of binomial variable X are 2 and 1 respectively, then $$\displaystyle P\left ( X\geq 1 \right )$$ is

A
23
B
78
C
45
D
1516

Solution

## The correct option is D $$\displaystyle \frac{15}{16}$$Here,  $$np = 2, npq =1$$$$\therefore p=q=\cfrac{1}{2}, n =4$$$$\therefore P(X\geq 1) =1-P(X =0)=1-^4C_0 \left(\cfrac{1}{2}\right)^4 =1-\cfrac{1}{16}=\cfrac{15}{16}$$Maths

Suggest Corrections

0

Similar questions
View More

People also searched for
View More