Question

PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person's consent, in order to the committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it to be likely that by the use of such force he will , cause injury, fear or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to the other.
FACTS: 'Z' is riding in a palanquin. A intending to rob 'Z', seizes the pole and stops the palanquin. Here A has caused cessation of motion to 'Z', and A has done this by his own bodily power.

• A. 'A' has used criminal force to 'Z'
• B. 'A' has no intention to use criminal force to 'Z'
• C. 'A' has used force with the consent of 'Z'
• D. None of the above

Answer 1

The correct option is A 'A' has used criminal force to 'Z'

The legal principle can be divided into 2 parts, i.e. in order to commit criminal force one must-

Firstly, there should be intentional use of force against person without his consent.

Secondly, such use of force is done intentionally or with the knowledge that it will cause injury, fear or annoyance to the other person.

Applying principle to the facts- A has intentionally used forced against Z by stopping the palanquin. Such force was used with the intention to rob Z. i.e. in order to commit a crime. Such act of Z is likely to cause injury, fear or annoyance.

Therefore, A has used criminal force. Since, both the conditions given in the principle is satisfied.