No, the given statement is not true because the total fare (in ₹) after each km is :
15,(15+8), (15+2×8), (15+3×8), ...
i.e 15,23,31,39,⋯
Let t1=15, t2=23, t3=31 and t4=39
Now, t2−t1=23−15=8
t3−t2=31−23=8
t4−t3=39−31=8
Since, the difference between the consecutive terms is same, it is an AP.