Question

If $1\mathrm{m}$ is equal to $39.37\mathrm{inch}$, how many inches will be equal to $16\mathrm{m}$?

Answer 1

Use the method of conversion of units to find the required value

We know that, $1\mathrm{m}=39.37\mathrm{inch}$

Then, $16\mathrm{m}=16\times 39.37\mathrm{inches}$

$\Rightarrow$ $16\mathrm{m}=629.92\mathrm{inches}$

Hence, there are $629.92\mathrm{inches}$ in $16\mathrm{m}$.