If the father has autosomal dominant disease (heterozygous) and the mother is unaffected, then what will be the probability of having an affected offspring irrespective of the sex of the child?
[1 mark]
A
90%
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
B
10%
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
C
30%
No worries! We‘ve got your back. Try BYJU‘S free classes today!
D
50%
Right on! Give the BNAT exam to get a 100% scholarship for BYJUS courses
Open in App
Solution
The correct option is D50% In autosomal (body chromosome) dominant disorder, the mutated gene is a dominant gene located on one of the autosomes, the chromosomes that play no role in sex determination.
Of the pair of genes present in the individual, the presence of a mutated gene in any one of the chromosomes is sufficient to affect the individual with this type of disorder.
A person with an autosomal dominant disorder, in this case, the father has a 50% chance of having an affected child with one mutated gene (dominant gene) and a 50% chance of having an unaffected child with two normal genes (recessive genes) irrespective of the sex of the child. Hence option d is correct.