If f(x)=(ax2+b)3,b∈R,a∈R−{0} and g(x) is a function such that f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x, then g(x)=
(Given that f and g are bijective functions)
A
√x1/3+ba
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B
√x1/3−ba
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C
√x3−ba
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D
√x3+ba
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Solution
The correct option is B√x1/3−ba ∵ It is given f(x) is bijective function, which is possible iff domain and range are restricted.
f(g(x))=g(f(x))=x is possible only when g is the inverse of f and vice-versa. f(x)=(ax2+b)3
If g(x)=f−1(x)
Let y=f(x)=(ax2+b)3 ⇒±√y1/3−ba=x
Clearly taking positive or negative sign will give us the inverse function. But we have to select exactly one of them, because we know that inverse of a function is unique. Based on options we have to take ′+′sign ⇒g(x)=√x1/3−ba