If f(y)=∣∣
∣
∣∣(1−y)a1b1(1−y)a1b2(1−y)a1b3(1−y)a2b1(1−y)a2b2(1−y)a2b3(1−y)a3b1(1−y)a3b2(1−y)a3b3∣∣
∣
∣∣ and ai,bi are even for i=1,2,3, then f′(2) is.
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Solution
f(y)=∣∣
∣
∣∣(1−y)a1b1(1−y)a1b2(1−y)a1b3(1−y)a2b1(1−y)a2b2(1−y)a2b3(1−y)a3b1(1−y)a3b2(1−y)a3b3∣∣
∣
∣∣⇒f′(y)=∣∣
∣
∣∣a1b1(1−y)a1b1−1(1−y)a1b2(1−y)a1b3a2b1(1−y)a2b1−1(1−y)a2b2(1−y)a2b3a3b1(1−y)a3b1−1(1−y)a3b2(1−y)a3b3∣∣
∣
∣∣+∣∣
∣
∣∣(1−y)a1b1a1b2(1−y)a1b2−1(1−y)a1b3(1−y)a2b1a2b2(1−y)a2b2−1(1−y)a2b3(1−y)a3b1a3b2(1−y)a3b2−1(1−y)a3b3∣∣
∣
∣∣+∣∣
∣
∣∣(1−y)a1b1(1−y)a1b2a1b3(1−y)a1b3−1(1−y)a2b1(1−y)a2b2a2b3(1−y)a2b3−1(1−y)a3b1(1−y)a3b2a3b3(1−y)a3b3−1∣∣
∣
∣∣ Putting y=2 We know that ai,bi are even so aibi will also be even. f′(2)=∣∣
∣∣a1b111a2b111a3b111∣∣
∣∣+∣∣
∣∣1a1b211a2b211a3b21∣∣
∣∣+∣∣
∣∣11a1b311a2b311a3b3∣∣
∣∣ As two columns are same so, f′(2)=0