Let p1(z)=az3+4z2+3z–4 and p2(z)=z3–4z+a
When we divide p1(z) by z–3, then we get the remainder as p1(3).
Now, p1(3)=a(3)3+4(3)2+3(3)–4
=27a+36+9–4=27a+41
When we divide p2(z) by z–3, then we get the remainder as p2(3).
Now p2(3)=(3)3–4(3)+a
=27–12+a=15+a
According to the question, both the remainders are same.
i.e. p1(3)=p2(3)
∴ 27a+41=15+a
⇒ 27a–a=15–41
⇒ 26a=−26
∴ a=−1