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Question

If z1=¯z2 and z3=¯z4, then arg(z4z1)+arg(z3z2) is equal to:

A
π
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B
0
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C
3π2
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D
π2
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Solution

The correct option is A π
Let z1=x1+iy1, z2=x2+iy2, z3=x3+iy3, z4=x4+iy4

Given that z1=¯z2 and z3=¯z4

x1+iy1=x2iy2 and x3+iy3=x4iy4

Therefore, x1=x2 , y1=y2 , x3=x4 , y3=y4

Now, z4z1=x4+iy4x1+iy1

z4z1=x4+iy4x1+iy1×x1iy1x1iy1

z4z1=x1x4+y1y4+i(x1y4x4y1)x21+y21

Similarly, z3z2=x2x3+y2y3+i(x2y3x3y2)x22+y22

But, x1=x2 , y1=y2 , x3=x4 , y3=y4

Therefore, z3z2=x1x4+y1y4+i(x1y4+x4y1)x21+y21

arg(z4z1)=tan1(x1y4x4y1x1x4+y1y4)

arg(z3z2)=tan1(x1y4+x4y1x1x4+y1y4)

arg(z3z2)=tan1((x1y4x4y1)x1x4+y1y4)

We know that tan1x+tan1(x)=π

Therefore, arg(z4z1)+arg(z3z2)=π

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