UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Apr 27 – May 03 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Mar 2024)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Apr 27 – May 03 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Apr 27 – May 03
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is true regarding the ice memory project? (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- The “Ice Memory project” aims to constitute the first world library of archived glacier ice, to preserve this invaluable scientific heritage for generations to come, when future techniques can obtain even more data from these samples.
- Under the “Ice Memory” initiative, Arctic scientists are drilling to save samples of ancient ice for analysis before the frozen layers melt away due to climate change.
Incorrect
- The “Ice Memory project” aims to constitute the first world library of archived glacier ice, to preserve this invaluable scientific heritage for generations to come, when future techniques can obtain even more data from these samples.
- Under the “Ice Memory” initiative, Arctic scientists are drilling to save samples of ancient ice for analysis before the frozen layers melt away due to climate change.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyThe term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of (Level – Moderate) [PYQ 2020]
Correct
- The Goldilocks Zone refers to the habitable zone around a star where the temperature is just right – not too hot and not too cold – for liquid water to exist on a planet.
- Looking for planets in the Goldilocks Zone is a way that allows scientists to hone in on their search for Earth-like planets that could contain life.
Incorrect
- The Goldilocks Zone refers to the habitable zone around a star where the temperature is just right – not too hot and not too cold – for liquid water to exist on a planet.
- Looking for planets in the Goldilocks Zone is a way that allows scientists to hone in on their search for Earth-like planets that could contain life.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityQ1. Consider the following statements about PPAC (Petroleum Planning & Analysis Cell): (Level – Moderate)
- It is a body under the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation.
- It provides data on the hydrocarbon sector in India.
- It ensures the effective implementation of hydrocarbon-based subsidy schemes of the government of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Petroleum Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC) is an attached office of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoPNG).
- Statement 2 is correct, PPAC is the most authentic official source for data and policy analysis on the hydrocarbon sector in the country.
- Statement 3 is correct, The key objective of PPAC is to ensure the effective implementation of hydrocarbon-based subsidy schemes of the government of India.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, The Petroleum Planning & Analysis Cell (PPAC) is an attached office of the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas (MoPNG).
- Statement 2 is correct, PPAC is the most authentic official source for data and policy analysis on the hydrocarbon sector in the country.
- Statement 3 is correct, The key objective of PPAC is to ensure the effective implementation of hydrocarbon-based subsidy schemes of the government of India.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of the following pairs of passes and locations are correctly matched? (Level – Difficult)
- Nathu la Pass: Sikkim
- Baralacha la Pass: Arunachal Pradesh
- Lipu Lekh Pass: Uttarakhand
- Pal Ghat Pass: Maharashtra
Options:
Correct
- Pair 1 is correct, Nathu la Pass is located on the Old Silk Route in Sikkim. It connects Sikkim to China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
- Pair 2 is not correct, Bara-lacha is a high mountain pass in the Zanskar range in Himachal Pradesh. It connects Lahaul district in Himachal Pradesh to Leh district in Ladakh.
- Pair 3 is correct, Lipulekh Pass is located in Uttarakhand near the tri-junction of India, Nepal and China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
- Pair 4 is not correct, Palghat Gap or Palakkad Pass is a low mountain pass in the Western Ghats between Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu and Palakkad in Kerala.
Incorrect
- Pair 1 is correct, Nathu la Pass is located on the Old Silk Route in Sikkim. It connects Sikkim to China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
- Pair 2 is not correct, Bara-lacha is a high mountain pass in the Zanskar range in Himachal Pradesh. It connects Lahaul district in Himachal Pradesh to Leh district in Ladakh.
- Pair 3 is correct, Lipulekh Pass is located in Uttarakhand near the tri-junction of India, Nepal and China’s Tibet Autonomous Region.
- Pair 4 is not correct, Palghat Gap or Palakkad Pass is a low mountain pass in the Western Ghats between Coimbatore in Tamil Nadu and Palakkad in Kerala.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: GeographyWhich are the correct statements? (Level – Easy)
- Heat waves are declared when the temperature of any place goes beyond 40 degrees Celsius.
- The IMD is the nodal agency for the declaration of heat and cold waves.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Heat wave is a condition of air temperature which becomes fatal to the human body when exposed.
- Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions.
- Statement 2 is correct, The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the nodal agency for the declaration of heat and cold waves in the country.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Heat wave is a condition of air temperature which becomes fatal to the human body when exposed.
- Heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 40°C or more for Plains and at least 30°C or more for Hilly regions.
- Statement 2 is correct, The India Meteorological Department (IMD) is the nodal agency for the declaration of heat and cold waves in the country.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat is RLV-LEX that has been in the news lately? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) carried out the landing experiment of the Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD) programme successfully in Chitradurga, Karnataka.
- The Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) test was the second of five tests that are a part of ISRO’s efforts to develop Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLVs) which can travel to low earth orbits to deliver payloads and return to earth for use again.
Incorrect
- The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) carried out the landing experiment of the Reusable Launch Vehicle-Technology Demonstration (RLV-TD) programme successfully in Chitradurga, Karnataka.
- The Reusable Launch Vehicle Autonomous Landing Mission (RLV LEX) test was the second of five tests that are a part of ISRO’s efforts to develop Reusable Launch Vehicle (RLVs) which can travel to low earth orbits to deliver payloads and return to earth for use again.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements: (Level – Moderate) [PYQ 2014]
- Animal Welfare Board of India is established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- The National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory body.
- The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is a statutory body established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
- Statement 2 is correct, The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body with an overarching supervisory/coordination role, performing functions as provided in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Statement 3 is correct, The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
- The Authority also has the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal as other members.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) is a statutory body established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.
- Statement 2 is correct, The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is a statutory body with an overarching supervisory/coordination role, performing functions as provided in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Statement 3 is correct, The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.
- The Authority also has the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal as other members.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat do you understand by RISC-V seen in the news recently? (Level – Moderate)
Correct
- RISC-V is an open-source computer model.
- RISC V is an instruction set architecture developed by the University of California, Berkeley.
Incorrect
- RISC-V is an open-source computer model.
- RISC V is an instruction set architecture developed by the University of California, Berkeley.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: International RelationsHow many of the following statements are true regarding the United Nations Statistical Commission? (Level – Difficult)
- It comes under the UN ECOSOC.
- It consists of a fixed number of members from all the inhabited regions of the world.
- The term of office is 4 years.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The United Nations Statistical Commission which was set up in 1947, is the highest body of the global statistical system.
- The United Nations Statistical Commission is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council (UN ECOSOC).
- Statement 2 is correct, The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the UN ECOSOC on the basis of equitable geographical distribution.
- Statement 3 is correct, The term of office of members is four years.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The United Nations Statistical Commission which was set up in 1947, is the highest body of the global statistical system.
- The United Nations Statistical Commission is a Functional Commission of the UN Economic and Social Council (UN ECOSOC).
- Statement 2 is correct, The Commission consists of 24 member countries of the United Nations elected by the UN ECOSOC on the basis of equitable geographical distribution.
- Statement 3 is correct, The term of office of members is four years.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: PolityHow many of the following statements are true regarding Legal Aid in India? (Level – Moderate)
- It has been established as a fundamental right of all citizens.
- The NALSA is a statutory body with the main aim to provide legal aid and assistance to disadvantaged and marginalized communities.
- The consortium of the law schools of India has established Legal Aid Clinics across the country with the aid of various NGOs and CSOs.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, Free legal aid is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed to all the citizens of the country, which is supported by:
- Article 21 of the Constitution states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”.
- Article 39A in the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution which provides for “Equal justice and free legal aid”.
- Statement 2 is correct, The NALSA is a statutory body established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 with the main aim to provide legal aid and assistance to disadvantaged and marginalized communities.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The District Legal Services Authority shall establish Legal Aid Clinics in all villages, or a cluster of villages, depending on the size of such villages, especially where the people face geographical, social and other barriers for access to the legal services institutions.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, Free legal aid is one of the fundamental rights guaranteed to all the citizens of the country, which is supported by:
- Article 21 of the Constitution states that “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law”.
- Article 39A in the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution which provides for “Equal justice and free legal aid”.
- Statement 2 is correct, The NALSA is a statutory body established under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 with the main aim to provide legal aid and assistance to disadvantaged and marginalized communities.
- Statement 3 is not correct, The District Legal Services Authority shall establish Legal Aid Clinics in all villages, or a cluster of villages, depending on the size of such villages, especially where the people face geographical, social and other barriers for access to the legal services institutions.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of the following countries neighbour the Persian Gulf? (Level – Moderate)
- Turkey
- Bahrain
- Qatar
- Iraq
- UAE
- Lebanon
Options:
Correct
- The countries that surround the Persian Gulf are Bahrain, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
Image Source: World Atlas
Incorrect
- The countries that surround the Persian Gulf are Bahrain, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.
Image Source: World Atlas
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyA layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called the ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why ? (Level – Easy) [PYQ - 2011]
- The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to earth.
- Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct, Ionosphere facilitates radio communication because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation.
- The Ozone layer is found in the Stratosphere.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation with the longest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.
- However, it is not the reason why the ionosphere facilitates radio communication.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct, Ionosphere facilitates radio communication because it reflects and modifies radio waves used for communication and navigation.
- The Ozone layer is found in the Stratosphere.
- Statement 2 is not correct, Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation with the longest wavelengths in the electromagnetic spectrum.
- However, it is not the reason why the ionosphere facilitates radio communication.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with regard to RBI’s monetary policy: (Level–Easy)
- In May 2015, the RBI Act was amended to provide a legislative mandate to the central bank to operate the country’s monetary policy framework.
- The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be binding on the Bank.
- Section 45ZB of the act says the MPC shall consist of 5 members.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016, to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee.
- Statement 02 is correct, Section 45ZB lays down that “the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target”. The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be binding on the Bank.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Union Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The first such MPC was constituted on September 29, 2016.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016, to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee.
- Statement 02 is correct, Section 45ZB lays down that “the Monetary Policy Committee shall determine the Policy Rate required to achieve the inflation target”. The decision of the Monetary Policy Committee shall be binding on the Bank.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Section 45ZB of the amended RBI Act, 1934 provides for an empowered six-member monetary policy committee (MPC) to be constituted by the Union Government by notification in the Official Gazette. The first such MPC was constituted on September 29, 2016.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regard to the Foreign Contribution Regulation Act: (Level–Moderate)
- The Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
- Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for five years.
- The applicant should also not have been prosecuted for or convicted of creating communal tension or disharmony.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, the Union government can cancel the FCRA registration of any NGO if it finds that the NGO is in violation of the Act, if it has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of society for two consecutive years, or if it has become defunct.
- Once the re
- Statement 01 is correct, The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, the Union government can cancel the FCRA registration of any NGO if it finds that the NGO is in violation of the Act, if it has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of society for two consecutive years, or if it has become defunct.
- Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
- Statement 03 is correct, According to the FCRA, the applicant must be a real person and must not have been prosecuted or convicted for using inducement or force to convert someone from one religion to another. Additionally, they should not have been involved in creating communal tension or disharmony and should not be involved or likely to be involved in propagating sedition.
- gistration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
- Statement 03 is correct, According to the FCRA, the applicant must be a real person and must not have been prosecuted or convicted for using inducement or force to convert someone from one religion to another. Additionally, they should not have been involved in creating communal tension or disharmony and should not be involved or likely to be involved in propagating sedition.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, the Union government can cancel the FCRA registration of any NGO if it finds that the NGO is in violation of the Act, if it has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of society for two consecutive years, or if it has become defunct.
- Once the re
- Statement 01 is correct, The Foreign Contribution Regulation Act prohibits the receipt of foreign funds by candidates for elections, journalists or newspaper and media broadcast companies, judges and government servants, members of legislature and political parties or their office-bearers, and organisations of a political nature.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, the Union government can cancel the FCRA registration of any NGO if it finds that the NGO is in violation of the Act, if it has not been engaged in any reasonable activity in its chosen field for the benefit of society for two consecutive years, or if it has become defunct.
- Once the registration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
- Statement 03 is correct, According to the FCRA, the applicant must be a real person and must not have been prosecuted or convicted for using inducement or force to convert someone from one religion to another. Additionally, they should not have been involved in creating communal tension or disharmony and should not be involved or likely to be involved in propagating sedition.
- gistration of an NGO is cancelled, it is not eligible for re-registration for three years.
- Statement 03 is correct, According to the FCRA, the applicant must be a real person and must not have been prosecuted or convicted for using inducement or force to convert someone from one religion to another. Additionally, they should not have been involved in creating communal tension or disharmony and should not be involved or likely to be involved in propagating sedition.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following places is/are included in the Tourism Ministry’s ‘Saptha Moksha Puri’ initiative? (Level – Difficult)
- Ayodhya
- Mathura
- Maya (Haridwar)
- Kashi (Varanasi)
- Kanchi Avantika (Ujjain)
- Puri
- Kedarnath
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Ministry of Tourism is promoting tourist destinations of India, including the Saptha Moksha Puri (Seven Liberation destinations), viz., Ayodhya, Mathura, Maya (Haridwar), Kashi (Varanasi), Kanchi Avantika (Ujjain), Puri (Odisha) and Dwaravati (Dwaraka, Gujarat), in a holistic manner.
- It undertakes promotional campaigns in domestic and global markets through electronic, print and digital media to promote the various tourist destinations and products of the country.
Incorrect
- Ministry of Tourism is promoting tourist destinations of India, including the Saptha Moksha Puri (Seven Liberation destinations), viz., Ayodhya, Mathura, Maya (Haridwar), Kashi (Varanasi), Kanchi Avantika (Ujjain), Puri (Odisha) and Dwaravati (Dwaraka, Gujarat), in a holistic manner.
- It undertakes promotional campaigns in domestic and global markets through electronic, print and digital media to promote the various tourist destinations and products of the country.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: PolityWhich of the following is not a criterion to be recognized as a national party in India? (Level – Easy)
Correct
As per the Election Commission of India, a political party shall be eligible to be recognized as a National Party if:-
- It secures at least 06 percent of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
- In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
Or
- It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People and these members are elected from at least three different States.
- A party gets recognition as a State Party in four or more States.
Incorrect
As per the Election Commission of India, a political party shall be eligible to be recognized as a National Party if:-
- It secures at least 06 percent of the valid votes polled in any four or more states, at a general election to the House of the People or, to the State Legislative Assembly; and
- In addition, it wins at least four seats in the House of the People from any State or States.
Or
- It wins at least two percent (2%) seats in the House of the People and these members are elected from at least three different States.
- A party gets recognition as a State Party in four or more States.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Social IssuesWith reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct? (Level – Moderate) (PYQ-CSE-2019)
Correct
- In most states, initially, the ceilings were imposed on individual and not family holdings, enabling landowners to divide up their holdings ‘notionally’ in the names of relatives merely to avoid the ceiling. So, Option A is wrong.
- A large number of exemptions to the ceiling limits were permitted by most states following the Second Plan recommendations that certain categories of land could be exempted from ceilings. These were tea, coffee and rubber plantations, orchards, specialised farms, etc. So, Option D is wrong.
- C is a ‘hyperbole’ wrong statement. Land reform is not responsible for cash crop cultivation becoming predominant in India. Besides, the majority of India’s area under cultivation is food grains and cereals. (and not cash crops) as per Table 3, page 101 of Economic Survey 2017-18. Thus, B is the most suitable answer.
Incorrect
- In most states, initially, the ceilings were imposed on individual and not family holdings, enabling landowners to divide up their holdings ‘notionally’ in the names of relatives merely to avoid the ceiling. So, Option A is wrong.
- A large number of exemptions to the ceiling limits were permitted by most states following the Second Plan recommendations that certain categories of land could be exempted from ceilings. These were tea, coffee and rubber plantations, orchards, specialised farms, etc. So, Option D is wrong.
- C is a ‘hyperbole’ wrong statement. Land reform is not responsible for cash crop cultivation becoming predominant in India. Besides, the majority of India’s area under cultivation is food grains and cereals. (and not cash crops) as per Table 3, page 101 of Economic Survey 2017-18. Thus, B is the most suitable answer.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is/are examples of Software as a Medical Device (SaMD)? (Level-Medium)
- Applications for viewing images from MRI, Ultrasound, or X-Ray examinations
- CT Scan
- Computer-Aided Detection software for image post-processing for detecting cancer
- Insulin Pump
Options:
Correct
- Software as a Medical Device (SaMD) refers to software that is intended for medical purposes and operates on its own or in conjunction with other medical devices. Here are some examples of SaMD:
- Diagnostic software: SaMD can help physicians diagnose medical conditions by analyzing medical images, such as X-rays, MRIs, and CT scans.
- SaMD can help healthcare professionals make more informed decisions by providing clinical decision support, which may include medical guidelines, decision algorithms, or predictive analytics.
- SaMD can help individuals monitor their health and wellness by tracking various health metrics, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels.
- SaMD can facilitate remote consultations between healthcare providers and patients, allowing for more accessible and convenient healthcare services.
- SaMD can help physicians manage patient prescriptions, including drug interactions, dosage recommendations, and potential side effects.
- SaMD can control medical devices such as pacemakers or insulin pumps, which help people manage certain medical conditions.
Incorrect
- Software as a Medical Device (SaMD) refers to software that is intended for medical purposes and operates on its own or in conjunction with other medical devices. Here are some examples of SaMD:
- Diagnostic software: SaMD can help physicians diagnose medical conditions by analyzing medical images, such as X-rays, MRIs, and CT scans.
- SaMD can help healthcare professionals make more informed decisions by providing clinical decision support, which may include medical guidelines, decision algorithms, or predictive analytics.
- SaMD can help individuals monitor their health and wellness by tracking various health metrics, such as heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels.
- SaMD can facilitate remote consultations between healthcare providers and patients, allowing for more accessible and convenient healthcare services.
- SaMD can help physicians manage patient prescriptions, including drug interactions, dosage recommendations, and potential side effects.
- SaMD can control medical devices such as pacemakers or insulin pumps, which help people manage certain medical conditions.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: G KConsider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)
Village Unique heritage of the Village
- Raini Chipko movement
- Modhera First solar-powered village in India
- Suketi Asia’s oldest fossil park
- Vidurashwathar Linked to the Mahabharata
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correct, Raini village in Uttarakhand is where the Chipko movement started in 1973 to protect and conserve trees. The area, close to the China border, is also of strategic importance. But it is now under stress from natural disasters.
- Pair 02 is correct, Modhera in Gujarat is India’s first village to be powered by solar energy completely.
- Modhera is famous for its Sun temple, a protected ancient site, which is situated on the river Pushpavati. It was built by King Bhima-I of the Chalukya dynasty in 1026-27.
- Pair 03 is correct, Suketi village in Himachal Pradesh has Asia’s oldest fossil park called Shivalik Fossil Park.It has a collection of prehistoric vertebrate fossils and skeletons recovered from the upper and middle Siwaliks geological formations of sandstones and clay at Suketi.
- Pair 04 is correct, Vidurashwatha is a village in Karnataka.It played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. It is known as the Jalianwalabagh of southern India. Around 35 freedom fighters were martyred while hoisting the flag of the Indian National Congress flag here.
- The name Vidurashwatha is derived from that of a big Ashwatha (sacred fig) tree located in this village. According to a legend of the times of Mahabharata, this tree was planted by Vidura, a courtier in the kingdom of Dhritarashtra; and hence the name Vidurashwatha.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correct, Raini village in Uttarakhand is where the Chipko movement started in 1973 to protect and conserve trees. The area, close to the China border, is also of strategic importance. But it is now under stress from natural disasters.
- Pair 02 is correct, Modhera in Gujarat is India’s first village to be powered by solar energy completely.
- Modhera is famous for its Sun temple, a protected ancient site, which is situated on the river Pushpavati. It was built by King Bhima-I of the Chalukya dynasty in 1026-27.
- Pair 03 is correct, Suketi village in Himachal Pradesh has Asia’s oldest fossil park called Shivalik Fossil Park.It has a collection of prehistoric vertebrate fossils and skeletons recovered from the upper and middle Siwaliks geological formations of sandstones and clay at Suketi.
- Pair 04 is correct, Vidurashwatha is a village in Karnataka.It played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. It is known as the Jalianwalabagh of southern India. Around 35 freedom fighters were martyred while hoisting the flag of the Indian National Congress flag here.
- The name Vidurashwatha is derived from that of a big Ashwatha (sacred fig) tree located in this village. According to a legend of the times of Mahabharata, this tree was planted by Vidura, a courtier in the kingdom of Dhritarashtra; and hence the name Vidurashwatha.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: G KWhich of the following statements is the best description of 'Mission Arikomban'? (Level-Medium)
Correct
- ‘Mission Arikomban’ is a mission by the Kerala forest department to capture a wild elephant called ‘Arikomban’ posing threats to human habitations in Idukki district.
- Over the past few years, Arikomban has trampled at least 10 people to death and destroyed around 60 houses and shops.
- The forest department has come up with a plan to capture Arikomban and train it to be a ‘kumki’, a captive elephant used for operations against rogue elephants.
Incorrect
- ‘Mission Arikomban’ is a mission by the Kerala forest department to capture a wild elephant called ‘Arikomban’ posing threats to human habitations in Idukki district.
- Over the past few years, Arikomban has trampled at least 10 people to death and destroyed around 60 houses and shops.
- The forest department has come up with a plan to capture Arikomban and train it to be a ‘kumki’, a captive elephant used for operations against rogue elephants.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWith respect to Biogas, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
- Biogas is produced through a biochemical process in which certain types of bacteria convert the biological wastes into useful bio-gas.
- The process of biogas production is anaerobic in nature
- Cattle dung has been recognized as the chief raw material for biogas plants, other materials like night-soil, poultry litter and agricultural wastes can also be used.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Biogas is produced through a biochemical process in which certain types of bacteria convert the biological wastes into useful bio-gas. Since the useful gas originates from a biological process, it has been termed as bio-gas. Methane gas is the main constituent of biogas.
- Statement 02 is correct, Biogas is generated during anaerobic digestion when microorganisms break down (eat) organic materials in the absence of air (or oxygen).
- Statement 03 is correct, Biomass is organic matter obtained from living or recently living organisms, such as crop residue, animal waste, forest debris, municipal solid waste etc
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Biogas is produced through a biochemical process in which certain types of bacteria convert the biological wastes into useful bio-gas. Since the useful gas originates from a biological process, it has been termed as bio-gas. Methane gas is the main constituent of biogas.
- Statement 02 is correct, Biogas is generated during anaerobic digestion when microorganisms break down (eat) organic materials in the absence of air (or oxygen).
- Statement 03 is correct, Biomass is organic matter obtained from living or recently living organisms, such as crop residue, animal waste, forest debris, municipal solid waste etc
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: GeographyWhich one of the following straits is nearest to the International Date Line? (Level-Difficult)
Correct
- Bering Strait is nearest to the International Date Line because the international Date Line runs equidistant between the American continents, to its east, and Asia, Australia, and Europe to its west.
- The International Date Line established in 1884, passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean and roughly follows a 180 degrees longitude north-south line on the Earth.
Incorrect
- Bering Strait is nearest to the International Date Line because the international Date Line runs equidistant between the American continents, to its east, and Asia, Australia, and Europe to its west.
- The International Date Line established in 1884, passes through the mid-Pacific Ocean and roughly follows a 180 degrees longitude north-south line on the Earth.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyArrange the following coal types on the basis of carbon content in decreasing order: (Level-Medium)
Correct
Coal types on the basis of carbon content in decreasing order are:
- Anthracite: It is the highest rank of coal and has a carbon content of 86% to 97%. It is the hardest, most brittle, and oldest coal type.
- Bituminous: It is the most commonly used coal and has a carbon content of 75% to 86%. It is widely used in electricity generation, metallurgy, and cement production.
- Lignite: Lignite coal is lighter brown in color. The carbon content of lignite ranges from 55-65%%. Lignite is the youngest and premature fossil fuel produced.
- Peat: Peat has low carbon content (30-40%) and has high moisture. It is mostly used for gardening and horticulture.
Incorrect
Coal types on the basis of carbon content in decreasing order are:
- Anthracite: It is the highest rank of coal and has a carbon content of 86% to 97%. It is the hardest, most brittle, and oldest coal type.
- Bituminous: It is the most commonly used coal and has a carbon content of 75% to 86%. It is widely used in electricity generation, metallurgy, and cement production.
- Lignite: Lignite coal is lighter brown in color. The carbon content of lignite ranges from 55-65%%. Lignite is the youngest and premature fossil fuel produced.
- Peat: Peat has low carbon content (30-40%) and has high moisture. It is mostly used for gardening and horticulture.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: HistoryWith respect to C Rajagopalachari, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- The Vedaranyam March was a part of the Civil disobedience movement led by C.Rajagopalachari in 1930.
- He led the group of ‘No changers’ in the Congress Party who were against entry into the Imperial and the provincial legislative councils along with Vallabhbhai Patel and Ajmal Khan.
- He was the first Governor-General of independent India.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The Vedaranyam March was a part of the Civil disobedience movement led by C.Rajagopalachari in 1930. He led the march as a prolongation of the Dandi March to protest against the Salt tax imposed by the British on Indians.
- A group of 150 volunteers accompanied him from Trichinopoly to Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu.
- The prominent members of the march were Rukmini Lakshmipathi, K. Kamaraj, Aranthangi C. Krishnaswamy, M. Bhaktavatsalam, and Rajaji’s son, C. R. Narasimhan.
- The Vedaranyam march came to an end on 28 April 1930 with the arrest of its members. Rajagopalachari was imprisoned for a term of six months.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Mahatma Gandhi led the group of ‘No changers’ in the Congress Party who were against entry into the Imperial and the provincial legislative councils along with Vallabhbhai Patel and Ajmal Khan, C Rajagopalachari and M.A. Hansari.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Lord Mountbatten (1947-48) was the last viceroy of the British Indian Empire and the first Governor-General of independent India.
- C.Rajagopalachari, also known as ‘Rajaji’ was the first Indian Governor General of Independent India.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The Vedaranyam March was a part of the Civil disobedience movement led by C.Rajagopalachari in 1930. He led the march as a prolongation of the Dandi March to protest against the Salt tax imposed by the British on Indians.
- A group of 150 volunteers accompanied him from Trichinopoly to Vedaranyam in Tamil Nadu.
- The prominent members of the march were Rukmini Lakshmipathi, K. Kamaraj, Aranthangi C. Krishnaswamy, M. Bhaktavatsalam, and Rajaji’s son, C. R. Narasimhan.
- The Vedaranyam march came to an end on 28 April 1930 with the arrest of its members. Rajagopalachari was imprisoned for a term of six months.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, Mahatma Gandhi led the group of ‘No changers’ in the Congress Party who were against entry into the Imperial and the provincial legislative councils along with Vallabhbhai Patel and Ajmal Khan, C Rajagopalachari and M.A. Hansari.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, Lord Mountbatten (1947-48) was the last viceroy of the British Indian Empire and the first Governor-General of independent India.
- C.Rajagopalachari, also known as ‘Rajaji’ was the first Indian Governor General of Independent India.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Bharat Gaurav Scheme? (Level-Medium)
- It was launched by the Indian Railways to tap the vast tourism potential of India.
- These trains will be run by both private players and IRCTC.
Options:
Correct
- In November 2021, Indian Railways launched the scheme to tap the vast tourism potential of India.
- This allowed private entities to operate theme-based train services across different circuits.
- These trains will be run by both private players and IRCTC.
- The Southern Railway became the first zone in Indian Railways to get the first registered service provider under the ‘Bharat Gaurav’ scheme.
Incorrect
- In November 2021, Indian Railways launched the scheme to tap the vast tourism potential of India.
- This allowed private entities to operate theme-based train services across different circuits.
- These trains will be run by both private players and IRCTC.
- The Southern Railway became the first zone in Indian Railways to get the first registered service provider under the ‘Bharat Gaurav’ scheme.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526
- Baburnama, an autobiography of Zahiruddhin Muhammad Babur was written in his mother tongue, Chagatai Turkic.
- Akbar defeated Rana Pratap in the Battle of Haldighati,
- Shah Jahan was the first Indian ruler after Ashoka to reach Balkh and Badakhshan.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, The First Battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, which took place on 21 April 1526. It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire. This was one of the earliest battles involving gunpowder firearms and field artillery.
- Statement 02 is correct, Baburnama, an autobiography of Zahiruddhin Muhammad Babur was written in his mother tongue, Chagatai Turkic.
- Babur wrote this in the form of memoirs. It is considered the first true work in the Islamic literature of the autobiographical genre.
- Statement 03 is correct, The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber. Akbar defeated Rana Pratap in this battle.
- Statement 04 is correct, Shah Jahan was the first Indian ruler after Ashoka to reach Balkh and Badakhshan.
Read more on the Mughal Empire.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, The First Battle of Panipat was fought between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, which took place on 21 April 1526. It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire. This was one of the earliest battles involving gunpowder firearms and field artillery.
- Statement 02 is correct, Baburnama, an autobiography of Zahiruddhin Muhammad Babur was written in his mother tongue, Chagatai Turkic.
- Babur wrote this in the form of memoirs. It is considered the first true work in the Islamic literature of the autobiographical genre.
- Statement 03 is correct, The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber. Akbar defeated Rana Pratap in this battle.
- Statement 04 is correct, Shah Jahan was the first Indian ruler after Ashoka to reach Balkh and Badakhshan.
Read more on the Mughal Empire.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: G KIndia is a member of which of the following ? (Level-Difficult) (PYQ-CSE-2008)
- Asian Development Bank
- Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
- Colombo Plan
- Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
- India is a founding member of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) which was established in 1966.
- India is not a member of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum. APEC is a regional economic forum comprising 21 member economies, including Australia, Canada, China, Japan, South Korea, the United States, and others. Its primary objective is to promote economic cooperation and integration in the Asia-Pacific region.
- India is a founding member of the Colombo Plan which was established in 1950 as a regional organisation to promote economic and social development in the Asia-Pacific region.
- The Colombo Plan has a membership of 27 countries, including Australia, China, Japan, South Korea, and several Southeast Asian nations.
- The Colombo Plan provides technical assistance and capacity building programs in various fields, including agriculture, education, health, and tourism, among others. India has been an active participant in the Colombo Plan’s programs and has also contributed to the organisation’s funds.
- India is not a member of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), which is a global economic organisation comprising 38 member countries, mostly developed economies.
Incorrect
- India is a founding member of the Asian Development Bank (ADB) which was established in 1966.
- India is not a member of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum. APEC is a regional economic forum comprising 21 member economies, including Australia, Canada, China, Japan, South Korea, the United States, and others. Its primary objective is to promote economic cooperation and integration in the Asia-Pacific region.
- India is a founding member of the Colombo Plan which was established in 1950 as a regional organisation to promote economic and social development in the Asia-Pacific region.
- The Colombo Plan has a membership of 27 countries, including Australia, China, Japan, South Korea, and several Southeast Asian nations.
- The Colombo Plan provides technical assistance and capacity building programs in various fields, including agriculture, education, health, and tourism, among others. India has been an active participant in the Colombo Plan’s programs and has also contributed to the organisation’s funds.
- India is not a member of the Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), which is a global economic organisation comprising 38 member countries, mostly developed economies.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements: (Level – Moderate)
- The national tiger census is conducted once every four years.
- It is conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in association with state forest departments and the Wildlife Protection Society of India (WPSI).
- The focus of the international big cat alliance will be on the conservation of the world’s seven major big cats
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct, The national tiger census is conducted once every four years.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Survey is conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in association with state forest departments and the Wildlife Institute of India.
- Statement 3 is correct, The International Big Cat Alliance focuses mainly on the protection of seven major big cats of the world namely Lions, Tigers, Cheetahs, Jaguars, Leopards, Snow Leopards, and Pumas.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct, The national tiger census is conducted once every four years.
- Statement 2 is not correct, The Survey is conducted by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) in association with state forest departments and the Wildlife Institute of India.
- Statement 3 is correct, The International Big Cat Alliance focuses mainly on the protection of seven major big cats of the world namely Lions, Tigers, Cheetahs, Jaguars, Leopards, Snow Leopards, and Pumas.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich among the following statements is the best description of 'Good Friday Agreement'? (Level – Easy)
Correct
- The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement, is a political deal signed in 1998 designed to bring an end to 30 years of violent conflict in Northern Ireland, known as “the Troubles”.
- Northern Ireland was created in 1921 and remained part of the UK when the rest of Ireland became an independent state.
- This created a split in the population between unionists, who wish to see Northern Ireland stay within the UK, and nationalists, who want it to become part of the Republic of Ireland.
- The Good Friday Agreement is based on the idea of cooperation between communities.
Incorrect
- The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement, is a political deal signed in 1998 designed to bring an end to 30 years of violent conflict in Northern Ireland, known as “the Troubles”.
- Northern Ireland was created in 1921 and remained part of the UK when the rest of Ireland became an independent state.
- This created a split in the population between unionists, who wish to see Northern Ireland stay within the UK, and nationalists, who want it to become part of the Republic of Ireland.
- The Good Friday Agreement is based on the idea of cooperation between communities.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following pairs: (Level – Difficult)
Article Special Provisions for States
- 371-A Nagaland
- 371-B Manipur
- 371-F Sikkim
- 371-J Karnataka
How many pairs given above are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 1 is correct, Article 371-A provides for the special provisions for Nagaland
- Pair 2 is not correct, Under Article 371-B, the President is empowered to provide for the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Tribal Areas of the state and such other embers as he may specify
- Pair 3 is correct, The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union. It included a new Article 371-F containing special provisions with respect to Sikkim.
- Pair 4 is correct, Article 371-J was inserted through the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2012 and it empowers the President to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would have a few special responsibilities.
Incorrect
- Pair 1 is correct, Article 371-A provides for the special provisions for Nagaland
- Pair 2 is not correct, Under Article 371-B, the President is empowered to provide for the creation of a committee of the Assam Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Tribal Areas of the state and such other embers as he may specify
- Pair 3 is correct, The 36th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1975 made Sikkim a full-fledged state of the Indian Union. It included a new Article 371-F containing special provisions with respect to Sikkim.
- Pair 4 is correct, Article 371-J was inserted through the 98th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2012 and it empowers the President to provide that the Governor of Karnataka would have a few special responsibilities.
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