IAS 2023 Mock Test 2 - UPSC Prelims GS Paper I

Taking mock tests is an essential part of the IAS preparation process. During the run-up to the UPSC prelims exam, which is due on 2nd June 2019, candidates should devote their time solely to revision and taking mock tests. This will boost candidates’ confidence and also give them a real feel of the IAS exam, which can help calm nerves on the D-Day.

IAS Free Mock Test 2 – UPSC Prelims 2023

Given below is the second UPSC mock test in our series of free online mocks for IAS Exam Preparation.

Also check out our UPSC Prelims 2023 mock test page to further align your preparation for the civil services examination.

The details of the mock test are as follows:

CSE (Prelims) GS MOCK TEST 2023


Explanation: Home Charges refer to the expenditure incurred in England by the Secretary of State on behalf of India. The main constituents were:

  • Dividend to the shareholders of the East India Company.
  • Interest on Public Debt raised abroad.
  • Expenses on India Office establishment in London.
  • Pensions and furloughs payments of British officers in the Civil and Military departments in India.
  • Payments to the British war office.
  • Interest on Foreign Capital Investments


Explanation: Samkhya philosophy was put forward by Kapila. It provided the materialistic ontology for Nyaya and Vaisheshika. It is generally believed that Samkhya philosophy is dualistic and not monistic because it has two entities, purush (spirit) and prakriti (nature) in it. It believes that the world is not a creation of God but nature and human life is regulated by natural forces. Thus, it does not recognize the existence of God. Hence, statement 1 is correct. Samkhya emphasizes the attainment of knowledge of self by means of concentration and meditation. Samkhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent. Samkhya forms the philosophical basis for Yoga. In Samkhya, the necessity of God is not felt for epistemological clarity about the interrelationship between higher Self, individual self, and the universe around us.



Mahayana : They believed in an Eternal Buddha who will live forever and is like a God who is unending. They followed the Bodhisattva concept of salvation of all conscious individual.

Hinayana: Followed the Theravada doctrine, which emphasised the salvation of an individual.

They considered Buddha to be mortal and his teachings were ethical values that defined the way humans should live.

Ans:4) (b)

Explanation: In December 1922 C.R. Das and Moti lal Nehru formed the congress khilafat swarajya party with C.R. Das as president and Moti lal Nehru as one of the secretaries. The new congress. It accepted the congress programme except in one respect it would take part in council Elections. In March 1925, Swarajists succeeded in electing Vithalbhi J. Patel, leading nationalist leader, as the president (speaker) of the central legislative Assembly.


Explanation:The emergence of a new agricultural economy needed to stop the killing of cattle for they are needed for agriculture. The rituals of sacrifices propounded by Vedic religions killed many cows.

Answer: 6) (D)


STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: The electoral bonds are available at specified branches of the State Bank of India (SBI) for 10 days each in the months designated by the government from time to time.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect: It can be purchased by only a citizen of India or a body incorporated in India.

The bonds may be bought for any value, in multiples of ₹1,000, ₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh or ₹1 crore. They can be bought by the donor with a KYC-compliant account. Donors can donate the bonds to their party of choice which can then be cashed in via the party’s verified account within 15 days.

Every party that is registered under section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (43 of 1951) and has secured at least one per cent of the votes polled in the most recent Lok Sabha or State election will be allotted a verified account by the Election Commission of India. Electoral bond transactions can be made only via this account.

Answer(7) : D

Explanation :

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect .Two or more recognised political parties can have the same symbol provided they are not contenders in the same States/UT. For example: Federal Party of Manipur and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) use ‘Rising Sun’ as their symbol.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect .The Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 empowers the EC to recognise political parties and allot symbols. It aims too Provide for specification, reservation, choice and allotment of symbols at elections in Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies o For the recognition of political parties.

Context : Recently the Delhi High Court upheld the Election Commission of India’s allotment of the ‘Two Leaves’ symbol to the AIADMK party following a dispute between the two rival factions of the party.

Ans 8) (c)


STATEMENT 1 is correct: Article 25 guarantees rights of freedom of religion of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect: These rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as non-citizens.

STATEMENT 3 is correct: Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).

And 9) (c)


All three conditions must be satisfied.

The Supreme Court held that a religious denomination must satisfy three conditions:

(a) It should be a collection of individuals who have a system of beliefs (Doctrines) which they regard as conducive to their spiritual well-being;

(b) It should have a common organization; and

(c) It should be designated by a distinctive name.

Ans 10): (c)


Pro Bono comes from the Latin expression “pro bono publico” meaning “for the public good.” Many lawyers provide poor and underprivileged clients with valuable legal advice and support without seeking any professional fee. Unfortunately, this laudable tradition of public service has not received any deserving recognition. In many countries pro bono legal support has emerged as the dominant means of dispensing free representation to poor and underserved clients.

Free legal aid and services in India is primarily the mandate of National Legal Services Authority and State Legal Aid Services authorities which has a wide presence throughout the country.

Answer (11): D


  • Asian Tea Alliance is an outcome of the signing of a memorandum of understanding in December 2018 between the Indian Tea Association and China Tea Marketing Association.
  • Participating countries: India, China, Indonesia, Sri Lanka and Japan.
  • It will work towards enhancing tea trade, promoting tea globally, and creating a sustainability agenda for the future of Asian tea.

Answer (12): C


Bold Kurukshetra is the military exercise between the armed forces of India and Singapore. The 12th edition of joint military exercise between India and Singapore, BOLD KURUKSHETRA 2019, culminated on 11 April 2019 after an impressive closing ceremony held at Babina Military Station. The four-day long joint training focused on developing interoperability and conduct of joint tactical operations in mechanized warfare.

Ans (13): (b)


STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as It will be implemented by the Ministry of Earth Sciences through its institutes namely India Meteorological Department (IMD), Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting (NCMRWF), and Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Service(INCOIS).

STATEMENT 2 is correct as the scheme will provide improved weather, climate and ocean forecasts and services.

‘Atmosphere & Climate Research-Modelling Observing Systems & Services (ACROSS)’ Scheme

ACROSS scheme pertains to the atmospheric science programs of the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and addresses different aspects of weather and climate services, which includes warnings for cyclone, storm surges, heat waves, thunderstorms, etc.

Each of these aspects is incorporated as nine sub-schemes under the umbrella scheme “ACROSS” and is implemented in an integrated manner through the aforesaid four institutes.

The ACROSS scheme consists of nine sub-programmes which are multi-disciplinary and multi institutional in nature and will be implemented in an integrated manner through IMD, HIM, NCMRWF and INCOIS.

As the objective of the ACROSS scheme is to provide a reliable weather and climate forecast for betterment of society, the scheme will aim at improving skill of weather and climate forecast through sustained observations, intensive R & D, and by adopting effective dissemination and communication strategies to ensure its timely reach to the end-user of all services like Agro-meteorological Services, Aviation service, Environmental monitoring services, Hydro-meteorological services, climate services, tourism, pilgrimage, mountaineering etc.

Ans (14): (d)


STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as The Scheme is applicable only for rural areas of the country and not urban area of the country.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect Only one person per eligible household would be considered for training under this programme and not All members of the eligible household would be considered for training under this programme.


The Scheme aims to bridge the digital divide, specifically targeting the rural population including the marginalized sections of society like Scheduled Castes (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST), Minorities, Below Poverty Line (BPL), women and differently-abled persons and minorities.

Ans (15): (a)


The definition of the kilogram has been changed from being the mass of prototype sanctioned by the 1st CGPM held in Paris in 1889 and deposited at the BIPM to the Planck constant, which is a physical constant. So option (a) is right.

Ans 16) :(C)

The west coast of our country is a high rocky retreating coast. Erosional forms dominate in the

west coast. The east coast of India is a low sedimentary coast. Depositional forms dominate in

the east coast.


Each year, the villagers designate an area around the village settlement for planting. The trees at the selected site are cut down with axes only those are economically useful. The cleared

area is known by a variety of names throughout the world including Swidden, Milpa and Kaingin. At places the forest are burnt to clear the land of vegetation and therefore this type of farming is also slash and burn agriculture. In India, shifting cultivation is known by several names like Jhum in north-east India, Podu, Dabi, Koman, or Bringa in Orissa, Kumari in Western Ghat, Watra in southeastern Rajasthan and Penda, Bewar or Dahia and Deppa in different parts of Madhya Pradesh.


IAS 2019 Mock Test 2-1


Explanation: It is similar to Bharatnatyam in the use of Mudras and postures to express emotions. The Tribhanga posture, i.e. the three-bended form of the body is innate to Odissi dance form. Odissi dance form is unique in its representation of gracefulness, sensuality and beauty. The dancers create intricate geometrical shapes and patterns with here body. Hence, it is known as ‘mobile sculputre’. ‘Atavakul or Atavus’ is the collection of fourty basic dance movements, is a feature of Mohiniattam dance and not Odissi dance.


Explanation: Some of the features of IndoIslamic architecture are given as follows: The use of arch and domes gained prominence during this period. It was known as ‘arcuade’ style of architecture and replaced the traditional Trabeat style of architecture. The Islamic rulers introduced the use of minars around the mosques and the mausoleums. Arabesque method was also used for decoration. Arabesque meant the use of geometrical vegetal ornamentation and was characterised by a continuous stem which split regularly, producing a series of counterpoised, leafy, secondary stems. The buildings had intricate jaali works, which signifies the importance of light in Islamic religion. The Islamic rulers introduced the Charbagh style of gardening, in which a square block was divided into four adjacent identical gardens. The architectures of these times also used the pietra-dura technique for the inlay of precious stones and gems into the stone walls.

Answer 21): A

Explanation :

Out of the four options given, Golan Heights is a disputed territory between Israel and Syria.

Golan Heights

  • The Golan Heights were part of Syria until 1967, when Israel captured most of the area in the Six Day War, occupying it and annexing it in 1981. That unilateral annexation was not recognized internationally, and Syria demands the return of the territory.
  • Syria tried to regain the Heights in the 1973 Middle East war, but was thwarted. Israel and Syria signed an armistice in 1974 and the Golan had been relatively quiet since.
  • In 2000, Israel and Syria held their highest-level talks over a possible return of the Golan and a peace agreement. But the negotiations collapsed and subsequent talks also failed.

Answer 22): D


  • Asian Tea Alliance is an outcome of the signing of a memorandum of understanding in December 2018 between the Indian Tea Association and China Tea Marketing Association.
  • Participating countries: India, China, Indonesia, Sri Lanka and Japan.
  • It will work towards enhancing tea trade, promoting tea globally, and creating a sustainability agenda for the future of Asian tea.

Answer 23): C


Indonesia released a special commemorative stamp on the theme of Ramayana to mark the 70th anniversary of the establishment of its diplomatic ties with India.

The stamp, designed by renowned Indonesian sculptor Padmashri Bapak Nyoman Nuarta, featured a scene from the Ramayana in which Jatayu valiantly fought to save Sita

Answer 24): C


Bold Kurukshetra is the military exercise between the armed forces of India and Singapore. The 12th edition of joint military exercise between India and Singapore, BOLD KURUKSHETRA 2019, culminated on 11 April 2019 after an impressive closing ceremony held at Babina Military Station. The four-day long joint training focused on developing interoperability and conduct of joint tactical operations in mechanized warfare.

Ans 25) (a)


A Glass Half Full: The Promise of Regional Trade in South Asia

This report documents systematically the gaps between current and potential trade in South Asia and addresses important specific barriers that have held trade back. These barriers include tariffs and paratariffs, real and perceived nontariff barriers, connectivity costs, and the broader trust deficit. This policy-focused report unpacks these critical barriers to effective trade integration in South Asia through four in-depth studies that produce new, detailed, on-the-ground knowledge. Three of the studies are based on extensive stakeholder consultations. Two also rely on tailored surveys. The fourth study, on tariffs, benefits from new data on paratariffs.

Ans:26) (d)

Explanation: The works on the walls of a solid structure are referred to as Murals. These have existed in India since ancient times and can be dated between 2nd century BC and 10th century AD. The evidence of such paintings can be found in several locations in India. The beauty and the exquisiteness of mural paintings are seen in places like Ajanta, Armamalai Cave, Ravan Chhaya Cave shelter, Bagh, Sittanavasal and Kailasanatha temple in Ellora. The paintings follow a theme, the most common being Hindu, Buddhist and Jain. Such paintings were also made to adorn any mundane premise. An example of such a work can be seen in the ancient theatre room in Jogimara Cave.


Explanation: Rio will be the first city to receive the title of World Capital of Architecture for 2020 under a programmer launched together by UNESCO and the International Union of Architects (UIA) in November 2018. Rio as one of the oldest cities in Brazil has a mix of modern and colonial architecture, with world-renowned sites.


Explanation: ASI is directly under the aegis of the Union Ministry of Culture and it is the foremost institution for archaeological research conducted across India. Its focus is on the preservation of physical and tangible heritage that is accumulated in the ancient monuments and archaeological sites. The ASI also has several diplomas and degrees for studying archaeology from the Institute of Archaeology in New Delhi.

Ans 29) (c)


Out of all the given options, Gulf of Kutch Marine National Park is in Gulf of Kutch is situated on the southern shore of the Gulf of in the Jamnagar of Gujarat. It is the first national marine park of India with 42 islands on the Jamnagar coast in the Marine National Park. So option (d) cannot be a correct option.

Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park

Mahatma Gandhi Marine National Park is a national park of India on the Andaman Islands, Situated 29 km. from Port Blair. Most of the coral reefs in the park are fringing reefs and the park is an important breeding ground for turtles

So option (b) cannot be an option..

Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary

Coringa Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and estuary situated in Andhra Pradesh, India.

It is the second largest stretch of mangrove forests in India with 24 mangrove tree species and more than 120 bird species.

It is home to the critically endangered white-backed vulture and the long billed vulture. In a mangrove ecosystem the water bodies of the ocean/sea and the river meet together at a certain point.

So option (c) be right option.

Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary (PCWBS)

It is a protected area is in Tamil Nadu, along the Palk Strait. The sanctuary was created for conservation of the near threatened blackbuck antelope, an endemic mammal species of India.

It is famous for large congregations of waterbirds, especially greater flamingos.

So option (a) is not right options

Ans 30) (c)


Global Warming Potential referenced to the updated decay response for the Bern carbon cycle model and future CO2 atmospheric concentrations held constant at current levels.

1. Carbon Dioxide:

Global warming potential (100 years): 1

2. Methane

Global warming potential (100 years): 21

3. Nitrous oxide

Global warming potential (100 years): 310

4. Hydro fluoro carbons

Global warming potential (100 years): 140-11,700

5. Sulfur hexafluoride

Global warming potential (100 years): 23,900

Answer 31): A

Explanation :

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as it is a flagship programme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD), Government of India, which ensures convergence with various programmes i.e., Anganwadi Services, Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana (PMMVY), Scheme for Adolescent Girls (SAG) of MWCD Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY), National Health Mission (NHM), Swachh-Bharat Mission, Public Distribution System (PDS), Department Food & Public Distribution, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) and Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as goals of Poshan Abhiyan/National Nutrition Mission is to improve the nutritional status of children in the age group of 0-6 years and not in the age group of 0-14 years.

STATEMENT 3 is correct as Its main objective is to reduce the level of stunting, under-nutrition, anemia and low birth weight babies.NNM targets to reduce stunting, undernutrition, anemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and reduce low birth weight by 2%, 2%, 3% and 2% per annum respectively.

Answer 32): c


STATEMENT 1: The reservation is enacted through the passing of the 124th constitutional amendment bill. Hence statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: The reservation does not apply to the minority educational institutions. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The 124th constitutional amendment bill will provide a 10% reservation to the economically weaker section of the society. It amends article 15 and 16 in the constitution. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on the grounds of race, religion, caste, sex, or place of birth. However, the government may make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes, or for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. The Bill seeks to amend Article 15 to additionally permit the government to provide for the advancement of economically weaker sections. Further, up to 10% of seats may be reserved for such sections for admission in educational institutions. Such reservation will not apply to minority educational institutions. Article 16 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination in employment in any government office. However, the government can allow reservation for any backward class of citizens, if they are not adequately represented in the services under the state. The Bill seeks to amend Article 16 to permit the government to reserve up to 10% of all posts for the economically weaker sections of citizens.

Ans 33): A


The fall armyworm (FAW), Spodoptera frugiperda, a devastating insect-pest, has been identified for the first time on the Indian subcontinent. Native to the Americas, the pest is known to eat over 80 plant species, with a particular preference for maize, a main staple crop around the world. The fall armyworm was first officially reported in Nigeria in West Africa in 2016, and rapidly spread across 44 countries in sub-Saharan Africa. Sightings of damage to maize crops in India due to fall armyworm mark the first report of the pest in Asia.

Answer:(34) C


Both statements are correct

Arms Trade Treaty is an attempt to regulate the international trade of conventional weapons for the purpose of contributing to international and regional peace; reducing human suffering; and promoting co-operation, transparency, and responsible action by and among states. It regulates the international trade in conventional arms – from small arms to battle tanks, combat aircraft, and warships. India is not a signatory to the arms trade treaty.

Answer (35) : A


Security Council Committee pursuant to resolutions 1267 concerning ISIL (Da’esh), Al-Qaida, and associated individuals, groups, undertakings, and entities oversees the sanctions measures imposed by the Security Council. The resolution 1267 (1999) and subsequent resolutions have all been adopted under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter and require all UN Member States to inter alia: freeze the assets of, prevent the entry into or transit through their territories by, and prevent the direct or indirect supply, sale and transfer of arms and military equipment to any individual or entity associated with Al-Qaida, Osama bin Laden and/or the Taliban as designated by the Committee.

Ans 36) (b)


BALANCE OF CURRENT ACCOUNT: The current account records a nation’s transactions with the rest of the world – specifically its net trade in goods and services, its net earnings on cross-border investments, and its net transfer payments – over a defined period of time, such as a year or a quarter.

A country’s current account balance may be positive (a surplus) or negative (a deficit); in either case the capital account balance will register an equal and opposite amount.

A positive current account balance indicates that the nation is a net lender to the rest of the world, while a negative current account balance indicates that it is a net borrower. A current account surplus increases a nation’s net foreign assets by the amount of the surplus, while a current account deficit decreases it by the amount of the deficit.

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: Balance of Current Account includes balance of trade(export and import of goods),balances of services and remittances. Investments and borrowings are part of capital account.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Balance of Trade is a part of Balance of Current Account.


It is an overall statement of a country’s economic transactions with the rest of the world in a year. It includes all receipts and payments.

Ans 37) (d)


Human Capital Index is part of the World Development Report, released by the World Bank. It is a programme of measurement and research to inform policy action, and a programme of support for country strategies to accelerate investment in human capital.

The HCI has been constructed for 157 countries. It claims to seek to measure the amount of human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by age 18. The HCI index values are contended to convey the productivity of the next generation of workers, compared to a benchmark of complete standard education and full health.

Ans 38) (a)


With the hike in import duty, imports will become costlier and hence people would prefer to buy goods domestically. Hence it will increase the domestic demand of those goods.

Also when people will demand the goods domestically it will lead to less imports and hence less current account deficit.

Answer :(39) D

Explanation :

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as “White Label ATMs” (WLAs) are set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities. It is not set up, owned and operated by scheduled commercial banks.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as The operators of these White Label ATMs (WLAs) are not permitted to charge bank customer directly.The operators are entitled to receive a fee from the banks for the use of ATM resources by the bank’s customers and are not permitted to charge bank customer directly.

White Label ATMs (WLAs):

  • Automated Teller Machines (ATMs) set up, owned and operated by non-bank entities are called “White Label ATMs” (WLAs). They provide banking services to the customers of banks in India, based on the cards (debit/credit/prepaid) issued by banks.
  • Non-bank entities that set up, own and operate ATMs are called “White Label ATM Operators” (WLAO). The WLAO’s role is confined to acquisition of transactions of all banks’ customers by establishing technical connectivity with the existing authorized, shared ATM Network Operators / Card Payment Network Operators.
  • Tata Communications Payment Solutions Limited (TCPSL) is the first company authorized by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to open White Label ATMs in the country. It got launched under the brand name ‘Indicash’ on 27 June 2013.

Answer:(40) A

Explanation :

STATEMENT 1 is correct as NIIF is India’s first sovereign wealth fund. .

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as It is not completely owned by the Government of India.

In October 2017, NIIF signed the first investment agreement worth $1 billion with the Abu Dhabi Investment Authority (ADIA).After this partnership agreement, ADIA became the first international institutional investor in NIIF’s Master Fund and a shareholder in National Investment and Infrastructure Fund Ltd along with Government of India who became 49% shareholder. Domestic Institutional Investors (DIIs) such as HDFC group, ICICI Bank, Kotak Mahindra Life, and Axis bank are also contributors in NIIF’s Master Fund.

Ans 41) (a)


STATEMENT 1 is correct as It is released by The International Energy Agency (IEA).

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as The share of electricity in global energy use is growing while the rise of low-carbon technologies is prompting a major transformation in the way electricity is generated. Electricity is the special focus of the 2018 edition.

World Energy Outlook, 2018

The World Energy Outlook 2018 examines future patterns of a changing global energy system at a time of increasing uncertainties and finds that major transformations are underway for the global energy sector, from growing electrification to the expansion of renewables, upheavals in oil production and globalization of natural gas markets.

Across all regions and fuels, policy choices made by governments will determine the shape of the energy system of the future

Ans 42) (c)


Madur Kathi: West Bengal

A geographical indication (GI) is a sign used on products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities or a reputation that are due to that origin. In India, the GI is issued by the Geographical Indication Registry located in Chennai.

Ans 43) (a)


STATEMENT 1: It is a Floral festival during monsoon season celebrated by women. Hence statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: It is the cultural identity of Telangana. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Bathukamma is a colorful floral festival of Telangana and is celebrated by womenfolk with exotic flowers of the region. The festival has over the years become a symbol of Telangana culture and identity. Bathukamma comes during the latter half of monsoon, before the onset of winter. During the festival, the womenfolk normally get back to their parents homes from their in-laws and breathe the fresh air of freedom to celebrate the colors of flowers.

The festival heralds the beauty of nature, the collective spirit of Telangana people, the indomitable spirit of womenfolk and also the ecological spirit of the agrarian people in preserving the natural resources in a festive way.

Answer 44): A


Chapchar kut : Mizoram

Lai Haroba : Manipur

Aoleang : Nagaland

The Guinness World Records has acknowledged Konyak Dance as the “largest traditional dance”, in which around 4,700 Konyak Naga women in their colourful traditional attire came together to perform largest “Traditional Konyak Dance”. It was organised during the “Aoleang Monyu” festival of the Konyak tribe, which is celebrated in the first week of April every year to welcome the spring.


Explanation: Balban adopted the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’. This was done to deal with some of the Rajput zamindars who had defied the government and set up forts in the area. It was during Firuz Tughlaq that jizyah became a separate tax. Earlier, it was a part of land revenue. Alauddin Khalji was the first Sultan to pay his soldiers in cash. Earlier, the Turkish soldiers were assigned a number of villages in the doab for the payment of their salaries. But Alauddin Khalji abolished these holdings.


Explanation: Balban adopted the policy of ‘Blood and Iron’. This was done to deal with some of the Rajput zamindars who had defied the government and set up forts in the area. It was during Firuz Tughlaq that jizyah became a separate tax. Earlier, it was a part of land revenue. Alauddin Khalji was the first Sultan to pay his soldiers in cash. Earlier, the Turkish soldiers were assigned a number of villages in the doab for the payment of their salaries. But Alauddin Khalji abolished these holdings.


Explanation: Economy in the Rig Vedic period was sustained by a combination of Pastoralism and agriculture. There are references, in the Rig Veda, to leveling of field, seed processing, and storage of grains in large jars. War booty was also a major source of wealth. Economic exchanges were conducted by gift giving, particularly to kings (bali) and priests (dana), and barter using cattle as a unit of currency. While gold is mentioned in some hymns, there is no indication of the use of coins. Panis in some hymns refers to merchants, in others to stingy people who hid their wealth and did not perform Vedic sacrifices. Some scholars suggest that Panis were Semitic traders, but the evidence for this is slim. Professions of warriors, priests, cattle– rearers, farmers, hunters, barbers, vintners and crafts of chariot–making, cart–making, carpentry, metal working, tanning, making of bows, sewing, weaving, making mats of grass and reed are mentioned in the hymns of Rig Veda. Some of these might have needed full– time specialists. Metallurgy is not mentioned in the Rig Veda, but the word ayas and instruments made from it such as razors, bangles, axes are mentioned.


Explanation: The term ‘Himalayan Blunder’ was used in the context of Rowlatt Act. By mid-April the Rowlatt Satyagraha had started losing momentum, forcing Gandhi to withdraw it. As a political campaign, therefore, it was a manifest failure, since it failed to secure its only aim, i.e., the repeal of the Rowlatt Act. It also lapsed into violence, although it was meant to be non-violent. Gandhi admitted to have committed a Himalayan blunder by offering the weapon of satyagraha to a people insufficiently trained in the discipline of non-violence.


Explanation: August offer marked an advance over the existing state of things by recognizing the natural right to determine the form of constitution and explicitly promised dominion status. However, it reaffirmed that full weight to minority opinion, which virtually endorsed the Muslim League’s demand of separate state for Muslims on which account the congress rejected the offer. For obvious reason Muslim League welcomed the offer.


Explanation: Bengalee was published in 1862 from Calcutta by Girishchandra Ghosh, taken over by Surendranath Banerjea in 1879. The Al-Hilal was a weekly Urdu language newspaper established by the Indian leader Maulana Abul Kalam Azad and used as a medium for criticism of the British Raj in India. The first issue came out on 13 July 1912. Jugantar Patrika was a Bengali revolutionary newspaper founded in 1906 in Calcutta by Barindra Kumar Ghosh, Abhinash Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutt.

Answer 51): B


Asian Premium is extra charges being collected by OPEC countries from Asian countries when selling oil in comparison to Western countries.

The Asian Premium has its origins in the late 1980s when Saudi Arabia, the de-facto OPEC leader, adopted a marker based price system for its oil exports – West Texas Intermediate (WTI) for the US, Brent for Europe and Dubai/Oman for Asia. The Asian marker was costlier than the American and European ones, and did not fully reflect market dynamics. This was due to lack of substantial production centres (other than in the Gulf region) and oil derivatives market in Asia. Also Asian countries, dependent heavily on oil imports, were essentially price-takers. In short, the oil exporters used their superior bargaining power to squeeze Asian oil importers while charging less to their American and European customers.

Answer 52): A

Explanation :

Operation Nisar was conducted by the Indian Navy (INS Sunayna).The operation was conducted to bring back Indians stranded in Socotra Island (Yemen) after Cyclone Mekunu hit the area.

Answer 53): c


Kabir was a famous disciple of Ramananda. He emphasized the essential oneness of all religions by describing Hindus and Muslims ‘as pots of the same clay’. To him Rama and Allah, temple and mosque were the same. He regarded devotion to god as an effective means of salvation and urged that to achieve this one must have a pure heart, free from cruelty, dishonesty, hypocrisy, and insincerity. He is regarded as the greatest of the mystic saints and his followers are called Kabirpanthis.

Answer 54): A


Only statement 1 is correct

RTS,S is the first, and to date the only vaccine that has demonstrated it can significantly reduce malaria in children. In clinical trials, the vaccine was found to prevent approximately 4 in 10 malaria cases, including 3 in 10 cases of life-threatening severe malaria.

Malawi’s launch of the world’s first malaria vaccine today in a landmark pilot programme. The country is the first of three in Africa in which the vaccine, known as RTS,S, will be made available to children up to 2 years of age; Ghana and Kenya will introduce the vaccine in the coming weeks.

Ans 55) (c)


STATEMENT 1 is correct as SpiNNaker (Spiking Neural Network Architecture) Supercomputer is the world’s largest neuromorphic supercomputer, designed and built to work in the same way a human brain works

STATEMENT 2 is correct as It is now supported by the European Human Brain Project.

SpiNNaker (Spiking Neural Network Architecture) Supercomputer

SpiNNaker is being used as one component of the neuromorphic computing platform for the Human Brain Project

The project was initially funded by the Engineering and Physical Sciences Research Council and is now supported by the European Human Brain Project.

Ans 56) (c)


Office of Profit is a position in the government which cannot be held by an MLA or an MP. The post can yield salaries, perquisites, and other benefits. There is no definition in the Constitution or in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 which positions constitutes the office of profit. But the constitution made it clear that in Article 102 and 191, the persons holding an office of profit can be disqualified from holding the post of member of legislatures.

The main objective of the provision is to ensure the separation of power between the legislature and the executive. This helps to curb the influence of the government on the lawmakers. The parliamentary secretaries are classified as an office of profit and led to the disqualification of MLAs of the Delhi Assembly recently.

Answer 57): D


As per guidelines set by Election Commission of India, service voters can exercise his/her franchise through postal ballot or through a proxy voter duly appointed by him.

Voters having service qualification are known as Service Voters i.e. they are –

  • members of the Armed Forces of the Union
  • member of a force to which provisions of the Army Act 1950 have been made applicable
  • member of an Armed Police Force of a State, and serving outside that state; or
  • a person employed under the Government of India, serving outside India

There’s a facility for officers on poll duty laid down by the Election Commission. The officers can either use Election Duty Certificate (EDC) or choose to vote via postal ballot.

As per Rule 18 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, the electors under preventive detention are entitled to cast their votes by post.”Rule 21(1) of Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, provides that the appropriate government shall intimate to Returning Officers, the names of the electors subjected to preventive detention with their address, electoral roll numbers and places of detention, within 15 days of calling an election.


Explanation: “The international day was proclaimed by the UN General Assembly in 1993 following a Recommendation adopted at the 26th Session of UNESCO’s General Conference in 1991. This in turn was a response to a call by African journalists who in 1991 produced the landmark Windhoek Declaration on media pluralism and independence.”


Explanation: The three-tier panchayati raj system was established on the recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. Ashok Mehta Committee had recommended that the three-tier system of panchayati raj should be replaced by the two-tier system. Panchayat Samiti is second tier above the Gram Panchayat and under the Zilla Parishad. So it is middle or linked tier of Panchayat Raj System. This institutes plans for Taluka or Block area. The long programmes are organized by officials and non-officials of Panchayat Samiti with the help of voluntary Institution at Block level. Panchayat Samiti is the executive body while the Zila Parishad is advisory, coordinating and supervisory body. The administrative formal body of the Panchayat Samiti constitutes by including following members: Sarpanchas of all Village Panchayats coming under the jurisdiction of the Development Block. Local M.L. as and M.L.Cs. with right to vote but not to hold the office. One person nominated by District Collector for every Panchayat for which no Sarpanch has been elected.

Answer 60): C


STATEMENT 1 is correct: The Commission has certain powers and functions mentioned in sections 18, 19, 20 and 25 of the RTI Act, 2005.These broadly relate to adjudication in second appeal for giving information; direction for record keeping, suo motu disclosures receiving and enquiring into a complaint on inability to file RTI etc;imposition of penalties and Monitoring and Reporting including preparation of an Annual Report. The decisions of the Commission are final and binding.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: The Central Information Commission has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. The jurisdiction of the Commission extends over all Central Public Authorities.

  • The Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than ten Information Commissioners. They are appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
  • The Chief Information Commissioner and an Information Commissioner hold office for a term of 5 years or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. They are not eligible for reappointment.


IAS 2019 Mock Test 2-2


Primary waves (P-waves) are compression waves that are longitudinal in nature. These waves can travel through any type of material, including fluids, and can travel at nearly twice the speed of S waves. Thus will not disappear in the core. But S waves do disappear in the core region.

Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves that are transverse in nature. S-waves can travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids and gases) do not support shear stresses. S-waves are slower than P-waves, and speeds are typically around 60% of that of P-waves in any given material. S waves speed varies with density just like P waves and this speed increases with increasing density. Since there is density difference between lithosphere and magma chamber the speed of the S waves do change.

S waves do not enter the Core region as the outer core is made up of liquid.


Explanation: It is not a perfectly straight line and has been moved slightly over the years to accommodate needs (or requests) of varied countries in the Pacific Ocean. While crossing International Date Line from Marshal Island to Hawaii Island, a person gains a day.


Explanation: While looking at the Southern India map Palconda Hills are in the North followed by Javadi, Shevaroy and Palani is located in transverse mode as southernmost hills.



Left hand tributaries of Kaveri are : Herangi, Hemavati, Shimsha, and Akravati Right hand tributaries of Kaveri are: Lakshamantirtha, Kabini, Amravati, Bhawani

Answer 66): a


STATEMENT 1: The fiscal deficit is regulated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act. Hence statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: The popular schemes like loan waiver increases the fiscal deficit in the Union and State Budget. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in 2003 which set targets for the government to reduce fiscal deficits. The targets were put off several times. In May 2016, the government set up a committee under NK Singh to review the FRBM Act. The government believed the targets were too rigid. The committee recommended that the government should target a fiscal deficit of 3 percent of the GDP in the years up to March 31, 2020, cut it to 2.8 percent in 2020-21 and to 2.5 percent by 2023. The popular schemes of the government like loan waiver and the freebies will increase the fiscal deficit in both the union and the state budgets.


Explanation: Ginni- coefficient is used for measurement of inequality. Laffer curve shows relationship between tax rate and tax revenue. Kuznets curve shows relationship between economic inequality and per capita income. Head Count Ratio is the proportion of a population that exists, or lives, below the poverty line. Hence option 1 is the correct answer.


Explanation: Union Budget every year presents receipt and expenditure standards for all the three years viz. financial year, current year and the following year.

Answer 69): A


Only statement 1 is correct

Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority has been constituted under the provisions of Companies Act, 2013. The IEPF fund has been set up under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs for promotion of investor awareness and protection of investor interests.

  • Unclaimed dividend, refund of application money, matured company deposits and debentures, and interest on them are moved to the IEPF fund if not claimed within seven years.
  • The IEPF is monitored by a trust, which decides how the money will be utilised for specific activities of investor awareness and education.
  • Investors can claim unpaid amounts from the company before they are credited to the IEPF account by following the procedure prescribed by the company.


Explanation: Demand side inflation takes place when “too much money chases too few goods”. To control the demand side inflation, the desired activity is to absorb liquidity from the economy. It can be done by- Selling govt securities Increasing rates- Bank rate, repo rate, reverse repo rate, CRR, SLR Moral Suasion to banks Marginal requirements Printing more money would increase liquidity in the economy and could worsen the inflationary situation.

Answer 71): B


STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: The Animal Welfare Board of India is a statutory advisory body on Animal Welfare Laws and promotes animal welfare in the country. It was established in 1962 under Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Its main functions are ensuring that animal welfare laws in the country are diligently followed, to provide grants to Animal Welfare Organizations and advising the Government of India on animal welfare issues.

The Animal Welfare Board of India was started under the stewardship of Late Smt. Rukmini Devi Arundale, well known humanitarian.

Answer 72): d


STATEMENT 1: It is an initiative of Italy with support from UNDP and FAO. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

STATEMENT 2: It is located in Rome, Italy. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The Africa center for climate and sustainable development was initiated by Italy with the support of the United Nations Development Programme and the Food and Agriculture Organisation. The Centre will provide a fast-track, demand-driven mechanism for African countries to access grant resources that support policies, initiatives, and best practices on climate change, food security, access to water, clean energy, and accelerating progress on the Sustainable Development Goals in Africa.

It has roots in a declaration endorsed by the G7 meeting of the Environment Ministers in 2017. It was established to facilitate coordination among the G7 and African countries on common initiatives in Africa to achieve the goals set by the Paris Agreement and the 2030 Agenda.

Answer 73): a


STATEMENT 1: It is a legally binding international agreement to restore land productivity. Hence statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: Global Environmental Facility is the financial mechanism for the UNCCD. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. All parties of the convention work together to improve the living conditions for people in drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the effects of drought.

As the dynamics of land, climate, and biodiversity are intimately connected, the UNCCD collaborates closely with the other two Rio Conventions; the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), to meet these complex challenges with an integrated approach and the best possible use of natural resources. Global Environment Facility acts as the financial mechanism to the UNCCD.

Ans 74 (a)


Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary is in Nagaland. So option (a) is right.

The Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary in Kiphire district is ideal for nature lovers and animal enthusiasts. The sanctuary is considered to be an abode for many wildlife animals such as leopards, tigers, wild buffaloes, hoolock gibbons and mithun.

Hornbill, the most popular bird in Nagaland is also abundantly found in the Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary. The wildlife sanctuary is spread over 642 hectares. It was established in the year 1983, and it lies along the international border with Myanmar.

The sanctuary is not only an abode for animals, but abundant flora to be found here too. The important trees to be found here are Bogipoma, Bonsum, Khasi Pine, Amari, Oaks, Gamari, Nahor, Uriam, Hollock, Alder, Sasi and Kachnar. Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary is located in such a geographic location that it receives high rainfall facilitating the growth of abundant flora.

The nearest airport to the Fakim Wildlife Sanctuary is Dimapur from where easy road transports can be availed.

Ans 75) (a)


STATEMENT 1 is correct. As The Talanoa Dialogue was mandated by the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change to take stock of the collective global efforts to reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases.

The Talanoa Dialogue is a process designed to help countries implement and enhance their Nationally Determined Contributions by 2020.

The Dialogue was mandated by the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention for Climate Change to take stock of the collective global efforts to reduce the emissions of greenhouse gases, in line with the goals of the Paris Agreement, which is to limit the rise in average global temperature to 2°C above pre-industrial levels, and to pursue efforts to limit the increase to 1.5°C.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect Talanoa Dialogue was launched at COP (Conference of Parties) 23 in 2017 and not in 2015.

The Talanoa Dialogue was launched at COP 23 under the Presidency of the Republic of Fiji, and is a year-long process that will culminate in political discussions at COP 24 in Katowice, Poland, where political leaders will be expected to signal their commitment to increasing the ambition of their NDCs

Ans 76) (c)


The Beyond Ultra-Deep Frontiers Fields and Legacy Observations (BUFFALO) survey

STATEMENT 1 is correct: It is an initiative of NASA.

Beyond Ultra-deep Frontier Fields And Legacy Observations (BUFFALO) is an astronomical survey built around the six Hubble Space Telescope (HST) Frontier Fields clusters designed to learn about early galactic assembly and clustering and prepare targets for observations with the James Webb Space Telescope.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: BUFFALO will place significant new constraints on how and when the most massive and luminous galaxies in the universe formed and how early galaxy formation is linked to dark matter assembly.

The same data will also probe the temperature and cross section of dark matter in the massive Frontier Fields galaxy clusters, and tell us how the dark matter, cluster gas, and dynamics of the clusters influence the galaxies in and around them.

Ans 77) (b)


The Focusing Optics X-ray Solar Imager (FOXSI)

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: It is collaboration between National Astronomical Observatory of Japan and NASA. The Focusing Optics X-ray Solar Imager (FOXSI) rocket project is collaboration between the University of Minnesota, University of California Berkeley, NASA/Marshall, NASA/Goddard, University of Tokyo/Kavli IPMU, Nagoya University, Tokyo University of Science, JAXA/ISAS, and the National Astronomical Observatory of Japan.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: This experiment studies solar radiation by exploring issues of energy release and particle acceleration in the corona—the outermost layer of the Sun.

The rocket observes and collects x-ray data throughout its brief six to seven-minute flight by targeting active regions, small solar flares, and the quiet Sun.

FOXSI is the first solar mission to use direct focusing optics in such a high energy range, rather than the indirect imaging methods of the past.

Ans 78) (c)


BepiColombo is Europe’s first mission to Mercury. It will set off in 2018 on a journey to the smallest and least explored terrestrial planet in our Solar System. BepiColombo is a joint mission between ESA and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA), executed under ESA leadership.

The mission comprises of two spacecraft: the Mercury Planetary Orbiter (MPO) and the Mercury Magnetospheric Orbiter (MMO).

Ans 79) (b)


STATEMENT 1 is incorrect, It is produced by fungi.

STATEMENT 2 is correct; Ergot alkaloids on consumption will lead to nausea and vomiting.

Mycotoxins are toxins produced by some fungi when they grow on food; most fungi produce mycotoxins which are harmless and even helpful. For example, the antibiotic penicillin came from a fungus, and it is a mycotoxin. Some of the harmful mycotoxins are aflatoxins, ergot alkaloids, Fumonisin mycotoxicosis, Trichothecene, and deoxynivalenol mycotoxicosis.

Ergot alkaloids are toxins released by the fungus belonging to the group Claviceps.

1. These contaminate the cereals like wheat, rye, and bajra during the pre-harvest stages in the field.

2. Consuming ergot alkaloids leads to diseases characterized by nausea, vomiting, giddiness, and somnolence.

3. In extreme cases, it may lead to gangrene of extremities.

Ans 80) (c)


Plant nutrition refers to the interrelated steps by which a living organism assimilates food and uses it for growth and replacement of tissue. It takes into account the interrelationships of mineral elements in the soil or soilless solution as well as their role in plant growth. This interrelationship involves a complex balance of mineral elements essential and beneficial for optimum plant growth.

The six macronutrients, nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), potassium (K), calcium (Ca), magnesium (Mg), and sulfur (S) are required by plants in large amounts.

The rest of the elements are required in trace amounts (micronutrients). Essential trace elements include boron (B), chlorine (Cl), copper (Cu), iron (Fe), manganese (Mn), sodium (Na), zinc (Zn), molybdenum (Mo), and nickel (Ni). Beneficial mineral elements include silicon (Si) and cobalt (Co).


Explanation: Barring, Directive Principles of State Policy, all other provisions can be amended by a simple majority.

Ans 82): B


Statement 1 is correct:The Gaganyaan project was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in his 2018 Independence Day speech.It will help India become the fourth country in the world after Russia, US and China to send humans to space.

Statement 2 is correct: A human-rated GSLV Mk-III will be used to carry the orbital module which will have necessary provisions for sustaining a 3-member crew for the duration of the mission.

Statement 3 incorrect: Under the mission 3 crew member will go to the space, it is not a moon mission. In space crew members will perform research work for a maximum of seven day.

Answer 83): c


STATEMENT 1: If no vacation of a seat is made both the seat will be treated as vacant. Hence statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: According to the representation of the people act, a candidate can contest in not more than two constituencies. Hence statement 2 is correct.

The contesting of two seats simultaneously is popular among political heavyweights. On the election to both the seats, one seat has to be vacated within one month otherwise both the seats will be treated as vacant. Section 30.7 of the representation of the people act, 1951 mentions that a candidate cannot contest in more than two constituencies simultaneously in the general elections.

Answer 84): D

Explanation :

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as The Parliament can make laws on any subject of the three lists (including the State List) for the union territories. This power of Parliament also extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their own local legislatures.


STATEMENT 2 is incorrect. As The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu. In the case of Puducherry also, the President can legislate by making regulations but only when the assembly is suspended or dissolved.

Answer 85):A


Statement 1 is correct: The CCEA has given its approval for the creation of a corpus of Rs 2000 crore for Agri-Market Infrastructure Fund (AMIF) to be created with NABARD for development and upgradation of agriculture marketing infrastructure in Gramin Agriculture Markets and Regulated Wholesale Markets.

Statement 2 is incorrect: States can access AMIF for innovative integrated market infrastructure projects, including through public private partnerships.

Answer 86):A


On 31 January 2019, France, Germany and the United Kingdom (the “E3”) announced the registration in France of INSTEX SAS (“Instrument for Supporting Trade Exchanges”), which is a special purpose vehicle aimed at facilitating legitimate trade between European economic operators and Iran.

Context: EU’s responses to the US decision in May 2018 to withdraw from the Joint Comprehensive Plan of Action (“JCPOA”) and re-impose related sanctions against Iran was the creation of a new mechanism to facilitate legitimate trade for European companies wishing to do business with Iran.

Answer 87):B


In a landmark decision, Abu Dhabi (UAE Capital) has included Hindi as the third official language used in its courts, alongside Arabic and English, as part of a move designed to improve access to justice.

Context:Indians, reportedly form the largest immigrant community in the UAE, with more than three million living in Dubai. The landmark decision undertaken by the judicial department will benefit a major chunk of workers, who mostly come from Hindi speaking regions of central and north India

Ans 88): B


Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 233 {Appointment of district judges}

  1. Appointments of persons to be, and the posting and promotion of, district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
  2. A person not already in the service of the Union or of the State shall only be eligible to be appointed a district judge if he has been for not less than seven years as an advocate or a pleader and is recommended by the High Court for appointment.

Statement 2 is correct : Article 234 {Recruitment of persons other than district judges to the judicial service}

Appointments of persons other than district judges to the judicial service of a State shall be made by the Governor of the State in accordance with rules made by him in that behalf after consultation with the State Public Service Commission and with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.

Context:The NITI Aayog recently mooted the creation of an All India Judicial Service (AIJS).The idea was mooted on the argument that a centralised judicial recruitment process will help the lower judiciary on timely recruitment and clearing vacancies.


Explanation: Indigo planting started in Bengal as early as 1777. When the British Power expanded, the Indigo planting was emphasized because of a high demand of the Blue Dye in Europe. The peasants were compelled to plant Indigo rather than the food Crops. The peasants were provided loans called “dadon” for indigo planting which was at a very high interest rate. The loan made the people indebted and resulted in a rebellion. Indigo peasants launched revolt in Nadia district of Bengal presidency. They refused to grow Indigo. European Planters responded by increasing the rent and evicting farmers. This led to more agitations and confrontations. Later on, the revolt got support from the intelligentsia, press, missionaries and Muslims. The leaders were Digambar and Bishnu Bishwas. Also, it was a successful one. Result: Government issued a notification that the Indian farmers cannot be compelled to grow indigo and that it would ensure that all disputes were settled by legal means.

Ans 90): D


Statement 1 is correct:: Nordic countries Norway (2nd, 83.5 per cent), Sweden (3rd, 82.2 per cent), and Finland (4th, 82.1 per cent) dominated the top slots.

Statement 2 is correct: India has been ranked 108th in the index, same as 2017. It maintains a stable ranking this year, but its gap is directionally larger this year, with a 33 per cent gap yet to be bridged.

Statement 3 is correct: South Asia was the second-lowest ranking region in the index, with only 65 percent of its gender gap now closed. However, it is worth noting that, from a low base, South Asia has made the fastest progress on closing its gender gap of any world region over the past decade.

Ans 91): A


Giving a further fillip to India’s energy conservation efforts, Ministry of Power ( So statement 1 is incorrect)has launched the ECO Niwas Samhita 2018,an Energy Conservation Building Code for Residential Buildings (ECBC-R)( so statement 2 is correct)

Statement 3 is incorrect: BEE is a statutory body under Ministry of Power which is mandated to implement policies and programmes in the area of energy efficiency and conservation. The objective of such initiatives to reduce energy intensity in our country by optimizing energy demand and reduce emissions of greenhouse gases (GHG) which are responsible for global warming and climate change. India has committed to reduction of 33-35% GHG emission by 2030 as part of the document submitted to UNFCCC.

Ans 92): C


Both statements are correct

Under the new policy, Nano drones which weigh less than 250 grams or equal does not need a registration or license. However, drones that belong to the remaining categories will need to be registered on the Digital Sky portal.

Digital Sky portal is an online platform as part of an enforcement system designated as No Permission No Takeoff (NPNT). Here, a drone operator can obtain all the necessary paperwork required

Ans 93): B


A GI is primarily an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product (handicrafts and industrial goods) originating from a definite geographical territory. It is a legal right under which the GI holder can prohibit others from using the same name.

Statement 1 is correct: Gi tag is given by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Statement 2 is correct:This tag is valid for a period of 10 years following which it can be renewed.

Statement 3 is incorrect:The GIs include twentynine products which have got two separate GIs each, one for the name and the other for the logo.

India, which is a party to TRIPS, formulated a GI law in 1999, which came into force four years later. India has till now granted 303 GIs, including 11 foreign products like Scotch and Cognac.

Ans 94):C


Statement 1 is incorrect: India became the 12th country to introduce NOTA or a similar option in its electoral proceedings. Other countries which provide this option are- France, Belgium, Greece, Brazil, and Bangladesh.

Statement 2 is correct: By providing NOTA button in the EVMs, accelerated the effective political participation in the present state of democratic system and the voters were empowered. Thus, it ensured wide participation of people.

Statement 3 is incorrect: In the 2014 general election, NOTA polled 1.1% of the votes, counting to over 6,000,000.

Ans 95): D


Jammu and Kashmir, on account of its special status, has a slightly different mechanism in place when it comes to Governor’s rule and President’s rule.

Statement 1 is incorrect:President’s rule under Article 356 can be imposed in Jammu and Kashmir when the Governor’s rule is not revoked for six months.

Statement 2 is incorrect:During the President’s rule under Article 356 in Jammu and Kashmir all the functions of the Government of the State of Jammu and Kashmir and all the powers vested in or exercisable by the Governor of that Stat shall, subject to the superintendence, direction and control of the President


Explanation: After consolidating their position in India, the Delhi Sultans introduced reforms in the land revenue administration. The lands were classified into three categories: 1. Iqta land – lands assigned to officials as iqtas instead of payment for their services. 2. khalisa land – land under the direct control of the Sultan and the revenues collected were spent for the maintenance of royal court and royal household. 3. Inam land – land assigned or granted to religious leaders or religious institutions.


Explanation: Pottery making has been in practice since Harappan Age. Pottery of the Mauryan period is generally referred to as Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW) or painted grey ware. They were characterised by the black paint and highly lustrous finish and were generally used as luxury items. They have often been referred to as the highest level of pottery.


Explanation: Methods of soil conservation are: Afforestation Restrictions on felling of trees Contour ploughing and strip cultivation Control of floods Restriction of shifting cultivation Restoration of long fallows Reclamation of saline and alkaline soil through application of Gypsum etc. Construction of bans along Gullis Application of cow dung Formation of wind breaker.



Zozi La – Jammu & Kashmir

Mana La – Uttrakhand


Explanation: The passage describes the Pampas region. Selvas – The Amazon basin which lies close to the equator has an equatorial type of climate. It is hot and wet all the year round. Campos (and Llanos) – On either side of the Amazon forests lies the belt which has the Savanna type of Climate. Gran Chaco – In the lowlands of northern Argentina and western Paraguay, it is dry during winter and wet during summer.

UPSC Mock Test Description IAS Mock Test for Prelims 2020 – General Studies Paper 1
Number of Questions 100
Type of Questions Objective-Type (MCQs)
Duration 2 Hours
Answer Key + Explanation Provided

Benefits of taking the UPSC Prelims Mock Test 2023

  • You will be aware of your weak areas and can revise accordingly.
  • You will develop speed in answering the questions.
  • The questions are prepared by experts based on recent trends and past UPSC question papers.
  • You will learn to overcome the negative marking scheme of the UPSC with practice.
  • Taking exam-simulated tests with time will help you learn time management, thus helping you finish the paper on the day of the exam.

To practice CSAT Mock Test for IAS Exam, you can check the linked article.

There are a few important topics that an aspirant can read from the links provided below as questions from these can be expected in the preliminary stage of UPSC 2023:

Coronavirus Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana Ayushman Bharat
Union Budget National Register of Citizens (NRC) Union Budget 2020

To boost the chances of your success in the upcoming examination, you can also enroll in the Prelims Test Series 2023 and additionally,  you can go through more prelims model questions covering all subjects from the link below:

UPSC Prelims 2023 Related Links:

UPSC Prelims CSAT Government Schemes
UPSC Prelims UPSC Calendar 2023
UPSC Prelims Syllabus 2023 UPSC Previous Year Question Papers
Government Exams NCERT Notes for UPSC


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