IAS 2019 Mock Test 1 – UPSC Prelims GS Paper I

IAS Toppers recommend solving UPSC Mock Tests as an essential part of Civil Services Exam preparation. In the week prior to the Prelims Exam Date, candidates should revise thoroughly and take as many IAS mock tests as possible.

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For details on UPSC Prelims 2019 test series, refer to the linked article.

IAS Free Mock Test 1 – UPSC Prelims 2019

Given below is the first UPSC mock test in our series of free online mocks for IAS Exam Preparation. The details of the mock test are as follows:

CSE (Prelims) GS MOCK TEST 2019

Q1.Consider the following statements regarding Philosophy under Jainism:

1. Jains believe in three-jewels: right belief, right knowledge and right conduct.

2. Anekantavada is a doctrine of Jainism.

3. Jains believe in the cycle of rebirth and concept of salvation.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) All of the above

Ans:1(d)

Explanation: Jains believe that through three jewels: right belief, right knowledge and right conduct, one can get rid of bad karma and also pull themselves out of the cycle of rebirth and achieve Salvation.

Anekantavada is a doctrine of Jainism. It emphasizes that the ultimate truth and reality is complex, and has multiple-aspects. Hence, there exits non-absolutism that means no single, specific statement can describe the nature of existence and the absolute truth

Q2.Consider the following statements regarding Odissi dance.

1. It is similar to Bharatnatyam in the use of Mudras and postures to express emotions.

2. The tribhanga posture, i.e. the three-bended form of the body is innate to Odissi dance form.

3. ‘Atavakul or Atavus’ is a collection of forty basic dance movements.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

Ans:2(a)

Explanation: It is similar to Bharatnatyam in the use of Mudras and postures to express emotions.The Tribhanga posture, i.e. the three-bended form of the body is innate to Odissi dance form.

Odissi dance form is unique in its representation of gracefulness, sensuality and beauty. The dancers create intricate geometrical shapes and patterns with her body. Hence, it is known as ‘mobile sculpture’.

‘Atavakul or Atavus’ is a collection of forty basic dance movements, is a feature of Mohiniattam dance and not Odissi dance.

Q3. Which of the following statements is not correctly matched?

UNESCO Heritage SiteState

(a) Rock shelters of Bhimbetka Madhya pradesh

(b) Airavatesvara temple Tamil Nadu

(c) Jantar Mantar Rajasthan

(d) Pattadakal temples Andhra Pradesh

Ans:3(d)

Explanation: Pattadakal temples are in state of Karnataka. Which belongs to badami chalukyas of Deccan.

Q4.Consider the following statements about Harappan seals:

1. The script used in seals is Prakrit.

2. The script was written from right to left.

3. The seals were used as amulets for spiritual purposes.

Which of the above statements(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1 and 3

Ans:4(b)

Explanation: Most seals have inscriptions in a pictographic script that is yet to be deciphered.

The script was written mostly from right to left but in bi-directional writing style. Some seals with a hole have been found on dead bodies. This indicates they might have used as amulets.

Q5.Consider the following statements related to

the Chola administration.

1. The Chola kingship was hereditary.

2. The Chola Empire was divided into provinces called mandalams.

3. Each mandalam was divided into number of nadus.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2

(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

Ans:5(a)

Explanation: The king was the head of the administration. The Chola kings and Queens were considered as representatives of God. Their idols were kept in temples. The Chola kingship was hereditary. The Chola royal family followed the principle that eldest son should succeed the king to the Chola throne. The heir apparent was called Yuvaraja, The Chola monarchs enjoyed enormous powers and privileges. The Chola kings took up titles which marked their achievements.

The Chola Empire was divided into nine provinces. They were also called mandalams. The head of the province was called viceroy. Close relatives of kings were appointed as viceroys. The Viceroys were in constant touch with the Central Government. Viceroys received orders from the king. They sent regular reply to the king. The viceroys had a large number of officials to assist them in the work of administration. Mandalams were named after the original names or the titles of the Chola kings.

Each mandalam divided into number of Kottams or Valanadus. Each kottam was sub divided into nadu. Each nadu was further divided into (Urs) villages which form part of the last unit of the administration.

Q6.Which of the following were the similarities between Buddhism and Jainism?

1. Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment.

2. Indifference to the authority of the Vedas.

3. Denial of the efficacy of rituals.

4. Non-injury to animal life.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) All of the above (b) Only 2, 3 and 4

(c) Only 1, 3 and 4 (d) Only 1 and 2

Ans:6 (b) self explanatory

Q7.Consider the following statements:

1. Shunga Dynasty introduced the idea of torans as beautifully decorated gateways.

2. Bharhut Stupa is in Uttar Pradesh where as Sanchi Stupa is in Madhya Pradesh.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

Ans:7(a) Explanation: The Shunga dynasty introduced the idea of torans as beautifully decorated gateways to the stupas. The torans were intricately carved with figures and patterns and were evidence of Hellenistic influence. Bharhut stupa is in Madhya Pradesh and Sanchi stupa is in Madhya Pradesh.

Q8.With reference to the provincial governors in

the Vijayanagar Empire, consider the following statements.

1. They held their own courts and maintained their own armies.

2. They were allowed to issue their own coins and appoint their own officers.

3. His term depended on his ability and strength.

Which of the above statement(s) is/ are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 3 (d) All of the above

Ans:8(d) Explanation: The governors of the provinces were royal princes at first. Later, persons belonging to vassal ruling families and nobles were also appointed as governors. The provincial governors had a large measure of autonomy. They held their own courts and maintained their own armies. They were allowed to issue their own coins, though of small denominations only, and appoint their own officers. There was no regular term for a provincial governor; his term depended on his ability and strength.

Q9. With reference to the Mughal Empire, consider the following statements.

1. Babur wrote his memoirs, Tuzuk-i-Baburi in Turki language.

2. Sher Shah introduced new silver coins called “Dam”.

3. Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system in his administration.

Correct answer code is:

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

Ans:9(d)

Explanation: Babur wrote his memoirs, Tuzuk-i-Baburi in Turki language. It provides a vivid account of India. He frankly confesses his own failures without suppressing any facts.

Sher Shah introduced new silver coins called “Dam” and they were in circulation till 1835. His revenue reforms increased the revenue of the state.

Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system in his administration. Under this system every officer was assigned a rank (mansab). The lowest rank was 10 and the highest was 5000 for the nobles. Princes of royal blood received even higher ranks.

Q10.Consider the following about Bhakti movement:

1. The movement emerged in response to the challenges posed by Hinduism.

2. It developed under two different schools of thought- Nirgunabhakti and Saguna Bhakti.

3. Kabir, Gurunanak and Ramanuja belong to the Nirgunabhakti.

Correct answer code is:

(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 3

(c) Only 1 and 2 (d) All of the above

Ans:10 (c)

Explanation: The bhakti movement has said to be originated in the south in the teachings of Tamil mystic saints of 7th-9th centuries. Later on it was systematized by Ramanuja in 12th century and propagated throughout India. At that time Islam provided a major challenge to Hinduism. Continual defeats on the field of battle loss of political power and domination of alien religion in the country accentuated frustration.

It developed under two different schools of thought- Nirgunabhakti and Sagunabhakti. Nirgunabhakti which believed in formless worship and Sagunabhakti which believed in the worship of form. Nirgunabhakti saints were- Kabir, Guru Nanak, Malak das, Dadu dayal, Ghora etc. Sagunabhakti saints wereRamanuja, Madhav, Vallabha, Meera bai, Chaitanya, Tulsidas, Surdas etc

Q11. Consider the following events:

1. Anglo-Nepalese War.

2. Suppression of the Pindaris.

3. End of the Maratha Confederacy.

The above events occurred under whose Governor Generalship?

(a) Lord Hastings (b) Lord Cornwallis

(c) Lord Wellesley (d) Sin John Shore

Ans:11 (a)

Explanation: Lord Hastings came to India, as Governor General, for the second time, in 1813 and expanded the aggressive and imperialist policies of Lord Wellesley and paved the way for the expansion of the British Empire. He took three important actions which established the paramountcy of British Colonialism in India. These are the Anglo-Nepalese War (1814-1816), suppression of the Pindarics and end of the Maratha Confederacy.

Q12.Consider the following statements:

1. The Imperial Legislative Council came into being from the Act of 1909.

2. Secretary of State for India resided in Delhi.

3. Charles Wood was the Secretary of State for India in 1861.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 3 (d) All of the above

Ans:12(c)

Explanation: Indian Councils Act of 1861 enlarged the Governor-General’s Executive Council for the purpose of making Laws in which capacity it was known as the Imperial Legislative Council. Thus, Imperial Legislative Council comes into being from the Act of 1861. Secretary of state for India was a member of British cabinet, he resided in London. In 1861, Charles wood was the secretary of state for India.

Q13.Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle:

1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?

(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3

(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4

Ans:13(b)

Q14. Which of the following was not one of the recommendations of the Cabinet Minion (1946)

about the Constitution of India?

(a) There should be a Union of India embracing both British India and the States

(b) The Muslim majority provinces should be separately constituted into a Union of Pakistan

(c) The provinces should enjoy autonomy for all subjects and should be free to form groups

(d) Three basic Groups proposed by the Mission were Group A (Hindumajority Provinces) Group B (Muslim-majority Provinces) and Group C (Bengal and Assam)

Ans:14(b)

Q15.Consider the following statements:

1. Brahma Dutt was the third Satyagrahi in Individual Satyagraha.

2. Harijan Bandhu and Harijan Sevak were the two papers of B.R. Ambedkar.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

Ans:15(a)

Explanation: Individual Satyagraha was limited, symbolic and non-violent in nature and it was left to Mahatma Gandhi to choose the Satyagrahi. The movement started on 17th October 1940. Vinoba Bhave was the first Satyagraphi Jawaharlal Nehru was the second Satyagrahi Brahma Dutt was the third Satyagrahi. Harajan Bandu and Harijan Svak were the two papers of Mahatma Gandhi.

Q16. Consider the following about ‘Equality of Opportunity in Public Employment’:

1. No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion,race, caste, sex, gender, descent, place of birth or residence.

2. State can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or

appointment in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans16 (c)

Explanation Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters of employment or appointment to any office under the State.

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: No citizen can be discriminated against or be ineligible for any employment or office under the State on grounds of only religion, race, caste, sex, and descent, place of birth or residence (and not gender).

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect: There are three exceptions to this general rule of equality of opportunity in public employment: (a) Parliament can prescribe residence as a condition for certain employment or appointment in a state or union territory or local authority or other authority. There is no such provision for any state except Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. (b) The State can provide for reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class that is not adequately represented in the state services. (c) A law can provide that the incumbent of an office related to religious or denominational institution or a member of its governing body should belong to a particular religion or denomination.

Q17.Consider the following statements about ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’:

1. Indian Constitution provides both individual as well as collective freedom of religion.

2. Right to Freedom of Religion is available only to Citizens.

3. Right to Freedom of Religion covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Ans 17(c)

Explanation STATEMENT 1 is correct: Article 25 guarantees rights of freedom of religion of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees rights of religious denominations or their sections. In other words, Article 26 protects collective freedom of religion.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect: These rights are available to all persons—citizens as well as noncitizens.

STATEMENT 3 is correct: Article 25 covers not only religious beliefs (doctrines) but also religious practices (rituals).

Q18. Consider the following statements about the Anti-Defection law:

1. The presiding officer has to decide on defection petition within six months of its filing.

2. The Judiciary cannot interfere before the issue of the order by the Presiding officer.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 18 (b) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: There is no timeline mentioned in the law. Hence statement 1 is not correct. STATEMENT 2: The judiciary can interfere only after the order of the Presiding Officer. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Anti-Defection law was made to ensure the stability of Government and arrest political defection for personal gains. It is placed under the tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution. It allows for disqualification of members of the legislature for voluntary resignation from his party and acting against the wishes of the party. The Presiding Officer is the deciding authority in the matters of defection. Exceptions are made when 2/3rd members of a party switch to another party. The decision of the Presiding Officer will come under judicial scrutiny. Hence as there is no definite timeline mentioned in the law, the Court can interfere only after a decision taken in defection.

Q19.Consider the following statements about the ‘Defamation law in India’:

1. Any action of damaging the reputation of a person can be filed as a criminal case in India.

2. The reputation of a person is protected under this law even after his death.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 19(c) Explanation: Defamation is an oral or written statement that hurts someone’s reputation. Section 499 and 500 of the Indian Penal Code provides an opportunity for the victim to file a criminal case for defamation against the accused. Punishment for the guilty person for criminal defamation is simple imprisonment which may extend to two years or fine or both. The case can be booked for defamation of the dead persons. Reputation is an integral and important part of the dignity of the individual and Right to reputation is an inherent right guaranteed by Article 21 and it is also called as natural rights. While Rights of freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19 of the Indian Constitution is not absolute and has imposed reasonable restrictions. The Supreme Court also upheld the constitutional validity of the defamation laws.

Q20.Which of the following is the correct description of the “Pro Bono Legal Service”?

a) Foreign legal expert services

b) Special arbitration council

c) Free legal aid to poor

d) Judicial service at Panchayat level

Ans 20 (c) Explanation: Pro Bono comes from the Latin expression “pro bono publico” meaning “for the public good.” Many lawyers provide poor and underprivileged clients with valuable legal advice and support without seeking any professional fee. Unfortunately, this laudable tradition of public service has not received any deserving recognition. In many countries pro bono legal support has emerged as the dominant means of dispensing free representation to poor and underserved clients. Free legal aid and services in India is primarily the mandate of National Legal Services Authority and State Legal Aid Services authorities which has a wide presence throughout the country.

Q21. A group of employees in a manufacturing industry is planning to form a union in the industry. The formation of a trade union in India is an:

a) Fundamental right

b) Constitutional right

c) Legal Right

d) Human right

Answer: 21(a) Explanation: The right to form the trade union in India is a fundamental right provided under Article. 19 (1) (C) in the Indian Constitution. Hence, the right to form trade union is justifiable in courts and an aggrieved citizen can approach the judicial court for enforcement of his right to form a trade union.

Q22. Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Forum:

1. Each parliamentary forum consists of not more than ten members from Rajya Sabha.

2. The speaker of the Lok Sabha is the ex-officio president of all the parliamentary forums.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: 22 (a)

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: Each parliamentary forum consists not more than 31 members with not more

than 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya sabha. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: The parliamentary forum on population and public health has chairman of Rajya sabha as its ex-officio president. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. Parliamentary Forums are formed to provide a platform to the members to have interactions with the ministers concerned, experts and key officials from the nodal ministries with a view to have a focused and meaningful discussion on critical issues with a result-oriented approach for speeding up the implementation process. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums except the Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-officio President and the Speaker is the ex-officio Co-President. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, the concerned Ministers and Chairmen of Departmentally-Related Standing Committees are the ex-officio Vice-Presidents of the respective Forums.

Q23. Which of the following is the correct description of the Nyaya Bandhu?

a) Scheme to reduce judicial pendency

b) Tele-law services for marginal section

c) Judicial functions of the village panchayats

d) Live telecasting of the court proceedings

Answer: 23(b)

Explanation: The Ministry of Law and Justice has launched a tele-law mobile application that is integrated with a dashboard and an application called Nyaya Bandhu. The pro bono legal service was developed to accelerate and facilitate practicing advocates to register and connect with the registered eligible beneficiaries and thereby, solidifying the pro bono culture in the country. The mobile application will enable the paralegal volunteers (PLV)’s to perform on-field pre-registration of cases with a facility to seek appointment from the panel lawyer on preferred date and time. The application will benefit 73,000 PLVs of National Legal Service Authority and State Legal Services Authorities (SLSA) in the country who will be associated under the tele-law service.

Q24. Tribunals are formed to reduce the pressure on the judiciary and provide speedy justice. In this context, consider the following statements:

1. The administrative tribunals to both the Union and the state are established by the parliament.

2. The parliament has the power to transfer the administrative disputes before the courts to the tribunals.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: 24(c) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: Under article 323 A the parliament establish both the central and the state administrative tribunals. Hence statement 1 is correct.

STATEMENT 2: The Parliament can transfer the administrative disputes from formal courts to the tribunals. Hence, statement 2 is correct. Article 323 A empowers the Parliament to provide for the establishment of administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes relating to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services of the Centre, the states, local bodies, public corporations, and other public authorities. In other words, Article 323 A enables the Parliament to take out the adjudication of disputes relating to service matters from the civil courts and the high courts and place it before the administrative tribunals.The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Central government to establish the State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on the specific request of the concerned state governments.

Q25. Consider the following statements about NOTA or ‘None of the Above’ provided as an option to the voters of India in most elections.

1. India became the 1st country to introduce NOTA option in its electoral proceedings.

2. It ensured effective political participation of people.

3. In the 2014 general election, NOTA polled more than 10% of the vote.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: 25 (C)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: India became the 12th country to introduce NOTA or a similar option in

its electoral proceedings. Other countries which provide this option are- France, Belgium, Greece, Brazil and Bangladesh.

Statement 2 is correct: By providing NOTA button in the EVMs, accelerated the effective political

participation in the present state of democratic system and the voters were empowered. Thus, it

ensured wide participation of people.

Statement 3 is incorrect: In the 2014 general election, NOTA polled 1.1% of the votes, counting to over 6,000,000.

Q26.Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Governor’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir?

a) Under the Governor’s rule, all the legislative power is vested in Parliament.

b) Under the Governor’s rule, all the legislative power is vested in the President of India.

c) Under the Governor’s rule, all the legislative power is vested in the governor of Jammu and Kashmir.

d) Under the Governor’s rule, all the legislative power is vested in the legislative assembly of Jammu and Kashmir.

Answer: (26) C Explanation: Under Article 92 of the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution, under which all the legislature powers are vested with the governor in case of governor’s rule.So option (c) is correct.

Q27.Memorandum of Procedure’ often seen in the news is related to

a) Foreign Direct Investment

b) Judicial appointment

c) Lateral entry into civil services

d) Institute of Eminence

Answer:27 (b) Explanation: Memorandum of Procedure is the set of rules to be followed in the selection of the Chief Justice of India and other Judges of the higher judiciary. After striking down the 99th constitutional amendment act, the Supreme Court directed the Government to draft a memorandum of procedure for appointment of judges to the higher judiciary in India. This was seen as an attempt to reform the opaque collegium system that is followed presently in judicial appointments

Q28. With reference to the term “cVIGIL” recently, seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It can be useful for entrepreneurs and businesses to learn about the current and applicable GST rates.

2. It will allow anyone in the election-bound state to report violations of the Model Code of

Conduct (MCC).

3. It requires an Android smartphone equipped with a camera, good internet connection, and GPS access.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 3 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 28 C Explanation: STATEMENT 1 is incorrect : GST Rate Finder is another app through which Entrepreneurs and businesses can learn about the current and applicable GST rates for themselves. “cVIGIL” is a user-friendly and easy to operate Android application which will allow anyone in the election-bound state to report violations of Model Code of Conduct (MCC) that comes into effect from the date of announcement of elections and goes on till the day after the polls. By using this app, citizens can immediately report on incidents of misconduct within minutes of having witnessed them and without having to rush to the office of the returning officer to lodge a complaint.

Q29. Which among the following is/are the key takeaways in the first data privacy blueprint recently released by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI)?

1. The report lays the foundation for individual ownership of data, making data collectors and data processors “mere custodians” of data.

2. The data protection framework should apply equally to the government and to private entities.

3. Existing privacy laws that apply to telecom service providers (TSPs) should also apply to all entities in the digital ecosystem.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:29 (D) Explanation: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) released a set of recommendations regarding privacy, security, and ownership of data in the telecom sector — the first data privacy blueprint by a statutory body. Four key takeaways The report lays the foundation for individual ownership of data, making data collectors and data processors “mere custodians” of data who are subject to regulations. The report says both collectors and processors should be accountable for “unintended harm” caused to the user. The data protection framework should apply equally to the government and to private entities, It suggests that existing privacy laws that apply to telecom service providers (TSPs) should also apply to “all entities in the digital ecosystem”. The other digital entities, TRAI states, include devices (mobiles and computers), browsers, software operating systems, applications, and over-the-top (OTT) service providers (that distribute media streamed over the Internet). An overarching theme is that “inadequate” data protection allows digital ecosystem entities an advantage in the use of the data, as compared to the user.

Q30. With reference to the constitutional provisions for the minority in India consider the following statement:

1. The Constitution of India does not define the word minority.

2. Gujarat became the first state in India to grant minority status for Jews.

3. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Zoroastrians, Buddhists, and Jains are the only communities to which the Union Government has accorded the status of minority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: 30 (B) Explanation: STATEMENT 2 is incorrect Gujarat becomes the third state in India after Maharashtra and West Bengal to have granted minority status for Jews. The Constitution of India does not define the word minority but refers to the word while according rights to religious and linguistic minorities and enshrines various provisions like article 25, 29, 30 for the protection of the rights and interests of the minorities. The Union Government accords the status of minority communities to six religious communities viz. Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Zoroastrians (Parsis), Buddhists, and Jains.

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance:

1. Chairman of the committee is nominated by the chairman of Rajya Sabha.

2. It consists of 31 members, 21 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.

Which of the above statement is correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer:31 (B) Explanation: STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as Chairman of the committee is nominated by the speaker of Lok Sabha and not by the chairman of Rajya Sabha. Parliamentary Standing Committee on Finance comes under Lok Sabha and not under Rajya Sabha. STATEMENT 2 is correct as standing committee consists of 31 members, 21 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha.

Q32. Consider the following statements about a new initiative Legal Information

Management and Briefing System (LIMBS):

1. It is an initiative of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

2. It will help in reducing government litigation and making government litigation more efficient.

Which of the above statement is correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: 32(B) Explanation: STATEMENT 1 is Incorrect as it is an initiative of the Ministry of law and justice and not of the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting. STATEMENT 2 is correct as LIMBS main function is to reduce government litigation and Make government litigation more efficient.

Q33.Which of the following hydroelectric projects are associated with Indus River and its tributaries in India?

1. Miyar

2. Lower Kalnai

3. Pakal Dul

4. Kishenganga

5. Ratle

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2, 3 and 4

(c) Only 4 and 5 (d) All of the above

Ans:33 (d) All the projects are associated with Indus basin.

Q34.Consider the following statements:

1. During winter in Delhi, two winds collide – one blowing from Punjab and another from Uttar Pradesh.

2. Temperature inversion can contribute to prolonged periods of photochemical smog.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

Ans:34(c) Explanation: In Delhi, there are two winds — one carrying pollutants from stubble burning in Punjab and the other bringing in moisture from Uttar Pradesh — that are colliding above the national capital. This, combined with the near-still wind conditions near the ground level, have effectively trapped the pollutants, leading to the smog. In the context of air pollution situation currently in NCT: “This stagnation occurs when there is an inversion layer in the atmosphere. An inversion layer refers to instances where the air does not cool as one moves up in the atmosphere,” it explained. “Instead, warmer air sits on top of denser, colder air near the ground. Since that cold air has no place to go thanks to the warm lid placed atop it, it just sits there gathering pollution like a hazy snow-globe,” NOAA said

Q35. Which of the following capitals are correctly arranged from West to East?

(a) Oslo, London, Kiev, Stockholm

(b) London, Oslo, Stockholm, Kiev

(c) London, Stockholm, Oslo, Kiev

(d) London, Kiev, Oslo, Stockholm

Ans:35(b) Explanation: The correctly arranged capitals from West to East are London, Oslo, Stockholm and Kiev. London, Oslo, Stockholm and kiev are the capitals of U.K., Norway, Sweden and Ukraine respectively.

Q36.Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.

2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.

3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 3

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 3

Ans:36(b) Explanation: The Indian Himalayan Region (IHR) is the section of the Himalayas within India, spanning the states of Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, as well as the hill regions of two states – Assam and West Bengal. Western Ghats are a chain of mountains running parallel to India’s western coast, approximately 30- 50 km inland.

The Western Ghats traverse the States of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Pulicat Lake formerly PralayaKaveri is the second largest brackish water lake or lagoon in India, after Chilika Lake. It straddles the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu states with over 40% of it in Andhra Pradesh and 60% in Tamil Nadu situated on the Coromandal Coast in South India. The lake encompasses the Pulicat Lake Bird Sanctuary. The barrier island of Sriharikota separates the lake from the Bay of Bengal and is home to the SatishDhawan Space Centre.

Q37.Which of these is the correct order of these regions with regard to the incidence of Landslides occurring in them?

(a) Vindhayachal> North-eastern Hills > Himalayas > Western Ghats and Nilgiris

(b) Himalayas > Vindhayachal > Western Ghats and the Nilgiris > North-eastern Hills

(c) Western Ghats and the Nilgiris >Vindhayachal> North-eastern Hills >Himalayas

(d) Himalayas > North-eastern Hills > Western Ghats and the Nilgiris> Vindhayachal

Ans:37(d)

Q38.Which of the following statements are correct?

1. There is no air or water on the moon.

2. The day and night temperature of moon are same.

3. Moon surface has no soil.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 2 (b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) All of the above

Ans:38(b) Explanation: Moon is very hot during the day and very cold during the night.

Q39.With reference to SAUNI Project, consider the following statements:

1. It is an out-and-out irrigation and drinking water project designed solely for Saurashtra peninsula in Gujarat.

2. The unique feature of this project is pipe canals instead of conventional open canals.

3. It aims to fill up 115 major dams in Saurashtra by diverting overflow of water from Sabarmati River.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 3

(c) Only 2 and 3 (d) Only 1 and 2

Ans :39(d) Explanation: SAUNI PROJECT It aims to fill up 115 major dams in Saurashtra by diverting overflow of water from Sardar Sarovar Dam on the Narmada River. It is an out-and-out irrigation and drinking water project designed solely for Saurashtra peninsula. Its unique feature involves making pipe canals instead of conventional open canals which has led to no acquisition of land and involve less loss of water.It has network of canals comprising 1,125-km network of pipelines that will help to channel water into farms. Tikdam: the 115 major dams in Saurashtra by diverting overflow of water from Sardar Sarovar Dam on the Narmada River and not Sabarmati River. Therefore, eliminating the statement 3 will help you arrive at the answer logically. Hence, from the answer options only option d is right. You need not know about other details or statements.

Q40. Identify the mountain pass using the following information.

1. It is located in the State of Himachal Pradesh.

2. Sutlej river enters India through this pass.

3. It is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road.

4. It is a border post for trade with China.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Lipulek pass (b) Nathula pass

(c) Shipki La pass (d) Jelep La pass

Ans:40(c) Explanation: Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post on the India-China border. The river Sutlej, which is called Langqên Zangbo in Tibet, enters India (from Tibet) through this pass. It is an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road and is one of the highest motorable passes in the world at 5669m (18,599 feet).

It is located in Kinnaur district in the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, and Tibet, China. The pass is India’s second border post for trade with Tibet after Nathu La in Sikkim, and Lipulekh in Uttarakhand

Q41.Consider the following statements:

1. The continental shelves of Lakshadweep are originated due to coral reefs.

2. The continental shelves of western coast are due to faulting and submergence.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of the above

Ans:41(c)

Q42. The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is much more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch because

(a) Arabian Sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal.

(b) Entire Arabian Sea current advances towards India, whereas only a part of the Bay of

Bengal current enters India.

(c) Both (a) and (b)

(d) None is correct because the Bay of Bengal branch is more powerful

Ans:42(c) Explanation: The Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon is much more powerful than the Bay of Bengal branch because – 1. Arabian sea is larger than the Bay of Bengal and 2. Entire Arabian sea current advances towards India, whereas only a part of the Bay of Bengal current enters India.

Q43. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as

the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder

and lightning. But rain is soon over.”

Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

(a) Savannah (b) Equatorial

(c) Monsoon (d) Mediterranean

Ans:43(b) Explanation: In Equatorial climate while the morning is clear, by noon dark clouds surround and bring heavy but short duration rainfall. This is a typical feature of Equatorial climate.

Q44.Secondary circulation in atmosphere consists of:

1. Polar easterlies

2. Temperate cyclones

3. Mountain winds

4. Monsoon

5. Sea breezes

Choose the correct option.

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2, 4 and 5

(c) Only 2 and 4

(d) Only 3 and 5

Ans:44(c) Explanation: Primary circulation – planetary winds, includes polar easterlies. Secondary circulation – cyclones, anticyclones, monsoon etc Tertiary winds – local winds like land and sea breezes, mountain and valley winds etc.

Q45. Which of the following factors are responsible for India’s failure to fully exploit the

inland fisheries during the last five decades?

1. Silting and pollution of the inland water bodies

2. Deforestation in the catchment areas of the rivers.

3. Lack of marketing facilities

Choose the correct option.

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1 and 3

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) All of the above

Ans:45(d)

Q46.The provision of minimum basic income is touted as an effective tool to reduce poverty. Which of the following will be the possible effect of providing minimum basic income in India?

a) It will increase the Human Development Index ranking of India)

b) It will increase the inflation and higher fiscal deficit for the government.

c) It worsens the condition of the labor force.

d) Both a and b

Answer: 46 (d) Explanation: The Universal Basic Income is the unconditional direct money transfer to all citizens of the country. It has been in the discussion stage in many parts of the world and some of the western countries started the project as a pilot scheme. It will increase spending in the health and education, which will enhance the human developmental rankings of the country. At the same time, it will increase the fiscal deficit of the government affecting the public finance of the country. In the era of automation, there will be an increase in the number of unemployment. The minimum basic income will protect the unemployed from acute poverty during the period of unemployment.

Q47. Goods and Service Tax is considered as a major economic reform in India after liberalization. Which of the following statements is not correct about GST revenue collection in 2017-18?

a) The number of e-returns filed by individual taxpayers has been doubled.

b) The combined revenue from Central and State GST is higher than the Integrated GST collection.

c) Monthly collection of indirect taxes fluctuates throughout the year.

d) All of the above

Answer 47: (b) Explanation: Goods and Services Tax is considered an important economic reform in India in the past two decades. It led to the greater formalization of the economy. This evident from the increased number of tax returns nearly doubled from around 3 crores in 2014-15 to 6 crores returns in 2017-18. The Integrated GST collection is higher than the combined collection of the CGST and SGST. This due to the inclusion of a tax on imports into the IGST. The amount of tax collected in every month highly fluctuates depending on the functioning of the economy. The tax on the lithium-ion battery was reduced to 18% from the earlier 24% slab)

Q48.The concept of ‘Data Exclusivity’, often seen in the news is related to

a) Encryption of data in communication

b) Information utilities of Insolvency process

c) Localization of sensitive personal data

d) Generic drugs manufacturing

Answer 48: (d) Explanation: Test data exclusivity refers to the protection of clinical trial data required to be submitted to a regulatory agency to prove the safety and efficacy of a new drug, and prevention of generic drug manufacturers from relying on this data in their own applications. It provides a form of market exclusivity outside that provided by patent rights. The data exclusivity represents a compromise between the innovator drug companies and generic drug companies, where innovator companies get a period of exclusivity. But once that exclusive period is over, a generic company can use the data for its own drug approval. In the US the exclusivity period is 5 Years for new pharmaceutical chemical entities, 3 years for new indications for pharmaceutical drugs, and 12 years for biologic products.

Q49.Consider the following statements about ‘PM Shram-Yogi Maandhan Yojana’:

1. It is a pension plan launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

2. The unorganized workers whose monthly income is Rs 15,000/ per month or less and belong to the age group of 18-40 years are eligible under this scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 49: (C) Explanation:

STATEMENT: 1 is correct as Ministry of Labour and Employment launched pension plan ‘PM Shram-Yogi Maandhan Yojana’ for informal workers.

STATEMENT: 2 is correct as The unorganised workers whose monthly income is Rs 15,000/ per month or less and belong to the age group of 18-40 years are eligible for the scheme. PM Shram-Yogi Maandhan Yojana :

●Minimum Assured Pension: Each subscriber under the PM-SYM, shall receive minimum assured pension of Rs 3000/- per month after attaining the age of 60 years.

●Family Pension: During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the spouse of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50% of the pension received by the beneficiary as a family pension. Family pension is applicable only to a spouse.

Q50.Which of the following monetary policy instruments helps to control inflation in the market? 1. Purchasing Government securities (G-sec) from the open market

2. The increase in Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) and the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

3. The Repo rate increase.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans 50: (B) Explanation: Monetary policy is a way for the RBI to control the supply of money in the economy. So these credit policies help control the inflation and in turn help with the economic growth and development of the country.

Statement 1 is incorrect: if RBI was purchasing securities from the open market it would have the opposite effect. The supply of money to the market would increase and so the inflation. Statement 2 is correct: Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is the portion of deposits with the commercial banks that it has to deposit to the RBI. So CRR is the percent of deposits the commercial banks have to keep with the RBI. The RBI will adjust the said percentage to control the supply of money available with the bank. And accordingly, the loans given by the bank will either become cheaper or more expensive. The CRR is a great tool to control inflation. The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the percent of total deposits that commercial banks have to keep with themselves in the form of cash reserves or gold) So increasing the SLR will mean the banks have fewer funds to give as loans thus controlling the supply of money in the economy.

Statement 3 is correct: The repo rate is actually the rate at which commercial banks and other institutes obtain short-term loans from the Central Bank. Increase in repo rate curtails supply of money in the market and helps in controlling inflation.

Q51. Consider the following statements about “Bharat Stage emission standards” of India

1. India has skipped the Bharat Stage VI norms and will implement the Bharat Stage

VIl nationwide from 2020.

2. The standards and the timeline for its implementation are set by the Central

Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment & Forests and climate change.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 51 (b) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as India has skipped the Bharat Stage V norms and will implement the Bharat Stage VI nationwide from 2020.

STATEMENT 2 is correct as The standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment & Forests and climate change. Bharat stage emission standards {BSES} are emission standards instituted by the Government of India to regulate the output of air pollutants from internal combustion engines and Spark-ignition engines equipment, including motor vehicles. The standards and the timeline for implementation are set by the Central Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment & Forests and climate change Bharat stage emission standards {BSES} The standards, based on European regulations were first introduced in 2000. Progressively stringent norms have been rolled out since then. All new vehicles manufactured after the implementation of the norms have to be compliant with the regulations. Since October 2010, Bharat Stage (BS) III norms have been enforced across the country. In 13 major cities, Bharat Stage IV emission norms have been in place since April 2010 and it has been enforced for entire country since April 2017. In 2016, the Indian government announced that the country would skip the BS-V norms altogether and adopt BS-VI norms by 2020. In its recent judgment, the Supreme Court has banned the sale and registration of motor vehicles conforming to the emission standard Bharat Stage-IV in the entire country from April 1, 2020.

Q52.“Baba Kalyani committee” sometimes in news is related to:

a) SEZ policy of India

b) Health policy of India

c) Existing APMC Market of India

d) NPA Issue of India

Ans 52 (a) Explanation: Option (a) is right, as The Baba Kalyani committee was constituted by the Ministry of Commerce & Industry to study the existing SEZ policy of India.

Q53.Consider the following statements about ‘Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC):

1. It cannot accept demand deposits.

2. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) provisions of Scheduled Commercial bank does not apply

to any NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 53 (c) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is correct, as NBFC cannot accept demand deposits. These features differentiate Scheduled commercial bank with NBFC.

STATEMENT 2 is correct, as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) does not apply to any NBFCs. Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company registered under the Companies Act, 1956 engaged in the business of loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities issued by Government or local authority or other marketable securities of a like nature, leasing, hire-purchase, insurance business, chit business but does not include any institution whose principal business is that of agriculture activity, industrial activity, purchase or sale of any goods (other than securities) or providing any services and sale/purchase/construction of immovable property. A non-banking institution which is a company and has principal business of receiving deposits under any scheme or arrangement in one lump sum or in instalments by way of contributions or in any other manner is also a non-banking financial company (Residuary Non-banking Company).

Q54.Recently the Government has launched the GrAMs programme in order to:

a) Strengthen rural agricultural marketing

b) Increase green cover to 33%

c) Achieve universal rural sanitation

d) Improve the Anganwadi centers

Ans 54 (a) Explanation: Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs) programme is for the development and upgradation of existing 22,000 rural haats physical infrastructure will be strengthened using MGNREGA and other Government Schemes and would be electronically linked to e-NAM and exempted from regulations of APMCs. This would provide farmers facility to make a direct sale to consumers and bulk purchasers. It will help in doubling the farmer’s income by 2022.

Q55.Which of the following would help to reduce Current Account Deficit of India?

1. Imposing import restrictions on nonessential goods.

2. Boosting exports of Textile industry by providing different incentives.

3. By encouraging public to import gold in large quantity.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only

b) 1 only

c) 2 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Ans 55 (a) Explanation Current Account Deficit: The current account measures the flow of goods, services and investments into and out of the country. We run into a deficit if the value of the goods and services we import exceeds the value of those we export. The current account includes net income, including interest and dividends, and transfers, like foreign aid. STATEMENT 1 is correct: By imposing restrictions on the import of non-essential goods would help us to reduce the deficit, as the exports remain the same. Hence the difference between exports and imports would narrow down.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: Again by the same logic, if imports remain the same and we promote exports then also the difference between the two would narrow down and hence Current account deficit would reduce.

STATEMENT 3 is incorrect: Gold is a non-essential commodity. Increasing its import would increase the current account deficit instead of reducing it.

Q56.Consider the following statements about ‘National Digital Communications Policy-2018’:

1. It aims to provide universal broadband connectivity at 50 Mbps to every citizen.

2. It aims to provide 1 Mbps connectivity to all Gram Panchayats by 2020 and 10 Mbps

by 2022.

3. The objective is to train one million man power for building New Age Skill.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Ans56 (c) Explanation : Key features of National Digital Communications Policy-2018 STATEMENT 1 is correct: Provide universal broadband connectivity at 50 Mbps to every citizen. STATEMENT 2 is incorrect: Provide 1 Gbps connectivity to all Gram Panchayats by 2020 and 10 Gbps by 2022.

STATEMENT 3 is correct: Train one million man power for building New Age Skill.

Ensure connectivity to all uncovered areas. Attract investments of USD 100 billion in the Digital Communications Sector. Expand IoT ecosystem to 5 billion connected devices. Establish a comprehensive data protection regime for digital communications that safeguards the privacy, autonomy and choice of individuals. Facilitate India’s effective participation in the global digital economy. Enforce accountability through appropriate institutional mechanisms to assure citizens of safe and secure digital communications infrastructure and services. Another target of the policy is to establish a comprehensive data protection regime for digital communications that safeguards the privacy, autonomy and choice of individuals. In this way, it will enforce accountability through appropriate institutional mechanisms to assure citizens of safe and secure digital communications infrastructure and services.

Q57.With reference to ‘Liberalized Remittance Scheme (LRS)’, consider the following statements:

1. It was launched by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

2. Regulations for the scheme are provided under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation)

Act, 2010.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 57: (D) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as LRS is a facility provided by the RBI for all resident individuals including minors to freely remit up to a certain amount in terms of US Dollar for current and capital account purposes or a combination of both.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as Regulations for the scheme are provided under the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and not under the Foreign Contribution (Regulation) Act, 2010.

Q58.The ‘CATS Accreditation’, often seen in the news is related to

a) Regulation of Chartered Accountant

b) Tiger conservation

c) Quality of the digital content

d) Service standards in Civil Aviation

Answer 58: (b) Explanation: CATS (Conservation Assured Tiger Standards) Accreditation is a set of 17 minimum elements with associated standards and criteria for effective management of tiger conservation areas. It provides an opportunity for individual tiger conservation areas or networks of areas to demonstrate their commitment to, and success in, protecting tigers. It is a voluntary, independent scheme for any area involved in tiger conservation. It also provides an incentive to those responsible for tiger conservation areas to improve the effectiveness of management and so contribute to the goal of doubling the number of tigers by 2022.

Q59.In which of the following locations Strategic Oil Reserves have not been established?

a) Visakhapatnam

b) Mangalore

c) Padur

d) Ambala

Answer 59: (D) Explanation: ISPRL (INDIAN STRATEGIC PETROLEUM RESERVE LIMITED) has already constructed underground rock caverns for storage of 5.33MMT of crude oil at three locations, viz. Visakhapatnam (1.33 MMT), Mangalore (1.5 MMT) and Padur (2.5 MMT). Recently Union Cabinet has approved establishment of additional 6.5 Million Metric Tonnes (MMT) Strategic Petroleum Reserve (SPR) facilities at two locations, i.e. Chandikhol in Odisha and Padur in Karnataka, including construction of dedicated SPMs (Single Point Mooring) for the two SPRs.

Q60.‘Compact2025’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

a) It is an initiative for ending hunger and undernutrition by 2025.

b) It is an initiative for increasing forest cover up to 30 percent all over the world by 2025.

c) It is an initiative for the elimination of gender inequality by 2025.

d) It is an initiative for increasing primary health coverage by 2025.

Answer 60: (A) Explanation: Compact2025 is an initiative for ending hunger and undernutrition by 2025. It brings stakeholders together to set priorities, innovate and learn, fine tune actions, build on successes, and share lessons to accelerate progress. The Compact2025 objective of ending hunger and undernutrition is fully consistent with and supportive of SDG 2 (End hunger, achieve food security and improved nutrition and promote sustainable agriculture) and cuts across many others (e.g. Goal 1: End poverty in all its forms everywhere, and Goal 3: Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages).

Q61.Consider the following statements about ‘Trans Fats’:

1.Trans fats are made by removing hydrogen from liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid, and to increase the shelf life of foods.

2.Trans fats raise bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower good (HDL) cholesterol levels.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 61: (B) Explanation:

Statement: 1 is incorrect, because Artificial trans fats (or trans fatty acids) are created in an industrial process that adds hydrogen to liquid vegetable oils to make them more solid. The primary dietary source for trans fats in processed food is “partially hydrogenated oils.” Statement: 2 is correct: Trans fats raise bad (LDL) cholesterol levels and lower good (HDL) cholesterol levels.Trans fat is considered by many doctors to be the worst type of fat you can eat.

Q62. ‘Oxytocin’ is recently seen in the news, consider the following statements about it:

1. Oxytocin is a hormone is secreted by the liver.

2. It is also called love hormone.

3. It is used as a life saving drug during childbirth because it can contract the uterus and induce delivery.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans 62: (B) Explanation:

Statement: 1 is incorrect: Oxytocin is a hormone produced by the hypothalamus and secreted by the pituitary gland of mammals during sex, childbirth, lactation or social bonding.

Statement: 2 is correct: It is sometimes referred to as the “love hormone,” because levels of oxytocin increase during hugging and orgasm. It may also have benefits as a treatment for a number of conditions, including depression, anxiety, and intestinal problems.

Statement: 3 is correct:It is used as a life saving drug during childbirth because it can contract the uterus and induce delivery, stem postpartum bleeding, and promote the release of breast milk

Q63.Consider the following statements about Telerobotic coronary intervention:

1. World’s first in-human tele-robotic coronary intervention performed in Poland.

2. It is a robotic method of performing heart surgery with the help of the internet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 63: (B) Explanation:

Statement: 1 is incorrect as in a major feat in the coronary intervention technology, Ahmedabadbased interventional cardiologist, Dr Tejas Patel conducted the world’s first in-human (FIH) telerobotic coronary intervention from Swaminarayan Akshardham temple in Gandhinagar, Gujarat India.

Statement: 2 is correct as telerobotic coronary intervention is a robotic method of performing heart surgery. With the help of the internet and a robotic tower, a surgeon is able to treat patients from a distance.

Q64.Consider the following statements about ‘Atmospheric Water Generator (AWG)’:

1. It is an innovative solution to meet the ever-increasing need for drinking water worldwide.

2. It has been manufactured by BEL in collaboration with CSIR-IICT and MAITHRI, a start-up company based in Hyderabad.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C Explanation:

STATEMENT: 1 is correct as Navratna Defence PSU Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) has unveiled its new product, the Atmospheric Water Generator (AWG), an innovative solution to meet the ever increasing need for drinking water worldwide.

STATEMENT: 2 is correct The Atmospheric Water Generator is being manufactured by BEL in collaboration with CSIR-IICT and MAITHRI, a start-up company based in Hyderabad. Atmospheric Water Generator (AWG):

● Navratna Defence PSU Bharat Electronics Ltd (BEL) has unveiled its new product, the 51 Atmospheric Water Generator (AWG), an innovative solution to meet the ever-increasing need for drinking water worldwide.

● BEL’s Atmospheric Water Generator can be used to generate water straight from the humidity present in the atmosphere.

● The day is not far when drinking water becomes the most precious commodity on the planet. ● Groundwater, currently the main source of drinking water, is being depleted at an alarming and unsustainable rates even as the search for alternate water sources continues.

Q65.Consider the following statements about ‘SpiNNaker (Spiking Neural Network Architecture) Supercomputer’:

1. It is the world’s largest neuromorphic supercomputer, designed and built to work in

the same way a human brain works.

2. It is now supported by the European Human Brain Project.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 65. (c) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is correct, as SpiNNaker (Spiking Neural Network Architecture) Supercomputer is the world’s largest neuromorphic supercomputer, designed and built to work in the same way a human brain works.

STATEMENT 2 is correct as it is now supported by the European Human Brain Project. SpiNNaker (Spiking Neural Network Architecture) Supercomputer SpiNNaker is being used as one component of the neuromorphic computing platform for the Human Brain Project The project was initially funded by the Engineering and Physical Sciences Research Council and is now supported by the European Human Brain Project.

Q66.Which of the following is associated with the Le Grand K?

a) World’s largest underground river

b) Kuiper Belt Object

c) Standard weight module

d) Most unstable element

Answer 66: (C) Explanation: The mass of a kilogram has been defined by an object of a platinum alloy cylinder known as the international prototype kilogram (IPK) or, less formally, Le Grand K is located in an environmentally monitored safely in a lower vault in the basement of the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in Sèvres, Paris. Housed under three bell jars, access to this precious cylinder requires three keys, operated independently, of which only two are kept in France. Recently scientists have devised a new system to measure kilogram using electric current where the Electromagnets generate a force. Scrap-yards use them on cranes to lift and move large metal objects, such as old cars. The pull of the electromagnet, the force it exerts, is directly related to the amount of electrical current going through its coils. There is, therefore, a direct relationship between electricity and weight

Q67.Which one of the following is correct regarding ‘Earth BioGenome Project’?

a) It is an initiative that aims to sequence and catalog the genomes of all of Earth’s currently

described eukaryotic species over a period of ten years

b) It is an initiative that aims to sequence and catalog the genomes of all of Earth’s currently

described Prokaryotes species over a period of ten years

c) It is an initiative that aims to sequence and catalog the genomes of all of Earth’s currently

described Prokaryotes species over a period of twenty years

d) It is an initiative that aims to sequence and catalog the genomes of all of Earth’s currently

described eukaryotic species over a period of twenty years

Ans 67 (a) Explanation: Earth BioGenome Project aims to sequence, catalog and characterize the genomes of all of Earth’s eukaryotic biodiversity over a period of ten years. So option (a) is right. Earth BioGenome Project (EBP) The Earth BioGenome Project (EBP) is an initiative that aims to sequence and catalog the genomes of all of Earth’s currently described eukaryotic species over a period of ten years. The initiative would produce an open DNA database of biological information that provides a platform for scientific research and supports environmental and conservation initiatives

Q68.Which of the following is the correct description of the X-CALIBUR?

a) Gene editing tool

b) Powerful rail gun for combat

c) Financial artificial intelligence

d) Airborne telescope to study neutron stars

Answer: (d) Explanation: X-CALIBUR is a telescope to observe neutron stars and black holes in a binary orbit with stars grow by gobbling up the stellar matter. It is launched by Washington University in the US from the McMurdo Station in Antarctica, is carried aloft on a helium balloon intended to reach an altitude of 130,000 feet. Its primary objective is to study about Vela X-1, a neutron star in binary orbit with a supergiant star. It is designed to measure the polarisation or, roughly, the orientation of the electric field of incoming X-rays from binary systems. The observation will also help to understand the theory of quantum electrodynamics and general relativity

Q69.Which of the following is the correct description of the ‘Astra’ military hardware?

a) Unmanned Combat Aerial Vehicle

b) Air to Air missile

c) Portable radar technology

d) Surface to Air missile

Ans (b) Explanation: Astra missile is the beyond visual range air to air missile (BVRAAM) developed by DRDO.It is the first BVRAAM completely developed within India. It is a state-of-the-art weapon system comparable with the best include its long range of over a hundred kilometers and its smokeless propulsion that lets the missile kill its target without giving any clue about the location of the launching aircraft. It forms the most potent weapon systems for such aircraft in modern aerial warfare and is needed in large numbers by any Air Force. It is attached to the IAF Su 30 and also planned to be integrated into the LCA Tejas.

Q70.Which of the following conditions are required for a celestial body to be called a planet?

1. It must orbit the sun.

2. It must have a moon of its own.

3. It should be massive enough to acquire near spherical shape.

4. It has to ‘clear its orbit’, that is, be the object that exerts the maximum gravitational

pull within its orbit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 4 only

b) 1, 3 and 4 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Ans 70 (b) Explanation: In 2006, the International Astronomical Union (IAU), which has the final say on matters of astronomical nomenclature, voted on a formal definition of what makes a planet. (The official press release is here.) According to their decision a planet must satisfy the following three criteria:

STATEMENT 1 is correct: It must be an object, which independently orbits the Sun (this means moons can’t be considered planets, since they orbit planets)

STATEMENT 3 is correct: It must have enough mass that its own gravity pulls it into a roughly spheroidal shape.

STATEMENT 4 is correct: It must be large enough to “dominate” its orbit (i.e. its mass must be much larger than anything else which crosses its orbit)

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect: there are no criteria for the planet to have a moon of its own.

For e.g: Mercury and Venus don’t have moons

Q71.Consider the following statements about ‘Bio speleology:

1. It is the scientific study of cave organisms and ecosystems.

2. They are collectively known as troglofauna.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 71 (c) Explanation Biospeleology

STATEMENT 1 is correct: It is the scientific study of cave organisms and ecosystems. STATEMENT 2 is correct: cave organisms and ecosystems are collectively known as troglofauna. Cave organisms fall into three basic classes: Troglobite Troglobites are obligatory cavernicoles, specialized for cave life. Some can leave caves for short periods, and may complete parts of their life cycles above ground, but cannot live their entire lives outside of a cave environment. Examples include chemotrophic bacteria, some species of flatworms, collembola, and cavefish. Troglophile Troglophiles can live part or all of their lives in caves, but can also complete a life cycle in appropriate environments on the surface. Examples include cave crickets, bats, millipedes, pseudoscorpions and spiders. Trogloxene Trogloxenes frequent caves, and may require caves for a portion of its life cycle, but must return to the surface (or a para hypogean zone) for at least some portion of its life. Oilbirds and the Daddy longlegs are trogloxenes.

Q72.Consider the following about ‘Repurpose Used Cooking Oil’:

1. It is an initiative of FSSAI.

2. It is an ecosystem that will enable the collection and conversion of UCO to biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) All of the above

Answer 72: (C) Explanation:

REPURPOSE USED COOKING OIL BOTH STATEMENTS ARE TRUE: The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) launched RUCO (Repurpose Used Cooking Oil), an initiative that will enable collection and conversion of used cooking oil to biodiesel. Under this initiative, 64 companies at 101 locations have been identified to enable collection of used cooking oil. The regulator believes India has the potential to recover 220 crore litres of used cooking oil for the production of biodiesel by 2022 through a co-ordinated action. According to FSSAI regulations, the maximum permissible limits for Total Polar Compounds (TPC) have been set at 25 per cent, beyond which the cooking oil is unsafe for consumption. FSSAI is also working in partnership with Biodiesel Association of India and the food industry to ensure effective compliance of used cooking oil regulations.

Q73.‘KATRIN Project’, recently in the news, is related to:

a) To detect and measure the neutrino’s mass

b) To study about gravitational waves.

c) To study about the SuperNova Experiment.

d) None of the above

Answer 73: (A) Explanation: Karlsruhe Tritium Neutrino experiment or KATRIN Neutrinos are sometimes called “ghost particles” because they’re so difficult to detect. So, to detect them Katrin is designed It is a massive detector based in the town of Karlsruhe, Germany, that has been designed to measure a neutrino’s mass with far greater precision than existing experiments. Some 200 people from 20 institutions in seven countries are part of the project Neutrinos are probably the most fascinating species of elementary particles. The “ghost particle of the Universe” is a key to open issues in science on many scales, linking the microcosm of elementary particles to the largest structures in the Universe. Neutrinos are the lightest particles in the Universe. Their tiny mass is a clear indication for physics beyond the standard model of elementary particle physics. On the largest scales, neutrinos act as “cosmic architects” and take part in shaping the visible structures in the Universe, as they influence the formation and the distribution of galaxies.

Q74.Consider the following statements about the Chandrayaan 2 Mission:

1. It is the first ever extraterrestrial soft landing mission carried by Indian Space Research Organisation.

2. Mining and extraction of Helium 3 from the lunar surface is part of the mission.

Which of the above statement is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 74: (A) Explanation:

STATEMENT 2: Mining and extracting Helium-3 deposits is not planned Chandrayaan 2 mission. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Chandrayaan-2 is India’s second mission to the Moon is a totally indigenous mission comprising of an Orbiter, Lander and Rover. It is the first ever Indian mission to soft land on the surface of an extraterrestrial body. The instruments on Rover will conduct an in-situ analysis of elements such as Na, Mg, Al, Si, etc; in the vicinity of the landing site. Mining and extracting Helium-3 deposits is not planned. It is incorrect.

Q75.According to B.N. Srikrishna committee, which of the following forms the part of sensitive personal data of a person?

1. Financial Data

2. Biometric Data

3. Caste

Select the Codes:

a. 2 only

b. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2 and 3

Answer 75: (D) Explanation: Justice B.N. Srikrishna committee submitted its report on data protection law in India. It defined the following as sensitive personal data: 1. passwords; 2. financial data; 3. health data; 4. official identifier; 5. sex life; 6. sexual orientation; 7. biometric data; 8. genetic data; 9. transgender status; 10. intersex status; 11. caste or tribe; 12. Religious or political belief or affiliation; 13. any other category of data specified by the Authority under section 22.

Q76.In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Royle’s Pika’:

a) Himalayas

b) Rann of kutch

c) Western Ghats

d) Gulf of Mannar

Ans.76 (a) Explanation:

Royle’s Pika/Himalayan Mouse Hare 66 Royle’s Pika is distributed mainly in Nepal, Punjab, and Kashmir; Tibet; Szechuan and Yunnan provinces in western China; northern Burma. IUCN status: Least Concern Royle’s Pika has slightly arched head with rufous-grey body with chestnut-colored head and sparse hair in front of his ears.

Q77.Which of the following best describes ‘TX2 Programme’?

a) It aims to double the number of wild tigers by 2022.

b) A new laboratory established by ISRO to detect gravitational waves.

c) It is an ambitious plan to phase out hazardous chemical by European Union.

d) It aims to develop new vaccines for Tuberculosis.

Ans 77 (a) Explanation: TX2 PROGRAMME It is the most ambitious and visionary species conservation goal ever set by Nepal and the 12 other tiger range countries: TX2 – to double wild tiger numbers by 2022, the next year of the tiger. WWF was a driving force behind the Tiger Summit and remains a major force behind TX2.

Q78.Consider the following statements about the Eurasian Otter:

1. It is endemic to the wetlands of the Central Asian region and Eastern Europe.

2. It is classified as near threatened species under the IUCN Red List.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 78 (b) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1: Eurasian Otter’s presence confirmed in the Western Ghats. Hence, statement 1 is not correct. The Eurasian otter is a semiaquatic mammal native to Eurasia. it is found in the waterways and coasts of Europe, many parts of Asia, and parts of northern Africa. The Eurasian otter has a diet mainly of fish and is strongly territorial. Recently there was a discovery of Eurasian Otter in the Western Ghats region. It has been the first solid evidence of their presence in the region after its first record in 1941. They are classified as near threatened in the IUCN Red List. They are affected by illegal poaching for their pelts.

Q79.Which among the following is/are not a part of UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves list?

1. Dihang-Dibang

2. Achanakmar-Amarkantak

3. Cold Desert

4. Pachmarhi

5. Simlipal

Select the correct answer using the code

given below:

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: 79 (C) Explanation: There are a total of eleven Indian biosphere reserves that are included in the list of UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere: Gulf of Mannar, Sunderban, Nanda Devi, Nokrek, Pachmarhi, Simlipal, Achanakmar-Amarkantak, Great Nicobar and Agasthyamala. Kanchenjunga Biosphere Reserve. Approach: Do not confuse in biosphere reserve notified by India (TOTAL18) and those which are included in the UNESCO list (TOTAL 11) Related topics: Read about all 18 biospheres of India (state, flora and fauna, tiger reserves, bird sanctuary etc), Ramsar sites

Q80.Global Environment Facility (GEF) is a financial mechanism for which of the following international environmental conventions?

1. Minamata Convention on Mercury

2. Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)

3. United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD)

4. United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 3 and 4 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 3 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer 80: (D). Explanation:

All the given international environmental conventions are financed through GEF.

The Global Environment Facility (GEF), established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth

Summit, is a catalyst for action on the environment — and much more.

The GEF is A UNIQUE PARTNERSHIP of 18 agencies — including United Nations agencies, multilateral development banks, national entities, and international NGOs — working with 183 countries to address the world’s most challenging environmental issues.

The GEF has a large network of civil society organizations, works closely with the private

sector around the world, and receives continuous inputs from an independent evaluation

office and a world-class scientific panel.

It is a FINANCIAL MECHANISM for five major international environmental conventions:

the Minamata Convention on Mercury, the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic

Pollutants (POPs), the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), the

United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) and the United Nations

Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Q81.Which of the following is the objective of Sagar Nidhi?

a) Study of Monsoon in Arabian Sea

b) Study of polymetallic nodules in central Indian Ocean

c) Study of Monsoon in Bay of Bengal

d) Polar research in the Antarctic region

Answer: 81 (C) Explanation: The Indian Ocean Research Vessel (ORV), Sagar Nidhi as a part of Indo-US expedition, studies about the vagaries of the Bay of Bengal-fed southwest monsoon, which accounts for 70% of India’s annual rainfall.

Sagar Nidhi will sail through the Bay of Bengal for collecting data on ocean conditions at different depths and locations and study the underlying principles of interaction of the uppermost layer of the ocean with the atmosphere. The project seeks to cast light on the complex mechanics of the monsoon, which have confounded researchers for a long time. The biggest challenge is the unpredictability of the weather phenomenon like breaks in the June-September rainy season.

The research project, which began in 2013, is funded by the ministry of earth sciences, under the national monsoon mission, and the US Office of Naval Research, which has been working with institutions such as Sri Lanka’s National Aquatic Resources Research and Development Agency.

Q82.With reference to ‘Blue Flag Standards’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It was established by Copenhagen-based Foundation for Environmental Education

(FEE) in 1985 in France.

2. The Blue Flag is an environmental award for beaches, sustainable boating tourism operators, and marine.

3. Chandrabhaga beach of Odisha’s Konark coast was first in Asia to get the Blue Flag certification.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 82: (D) Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is correct. As it was established by Copenhagen-based Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) in 1985 in France. The Blue Flag was created in France in 1985, as a pilot scheme from the Office of the Foundation for Environmental Education in Europe where French coastal municipalities were awarded the Blue Flag on the basis of criteria covering sewage treatment and bathing water quality.11 French municipalities got the award in 1985

STATEMENT 2 is correct As the Blue Flag is an environmental award for beaches, sustainable boating tourism operators, and marine.

STATEMENT 3 is correct As Chandrabhaga beach of Odisha’s Konark coast was first in Asia to get the Blue Flag certification.

Q83.Consider the following statements about ‘Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species’:

1. It is a dedicated facility of CSIR’s Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB) in

Hyderabad.

2. It would facilitate exchange of genetic material between the Indian zoos for maintaining genetic diversity and conservation management made accessible to scientists and wildlife managers for implementing conservation programs.

Which of the following statements is/are correct:

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 83 (C)

Explanation

Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered Species

• Union Minister for Science & Technology, Earth Sciences & Environment, Forest &

Climate Change Minister Dr Harsh Vardhan dedicated India’s only facility for

conservation of endangered species.

• STATEMENT 1 is correct: The Laboratory for the Conservation of Endangered

Species (LaCONES), a dedicated facility of CSIR’s Centre for Cellular and Molecular

Biology (CCMB) in Hyderabad uses modern biotechnologies for conservation of

endangered wildlife.(CCMB-LaCONES is the only laboratory in India that has

developed methods for collection and cryopreservation of semen and oocytes from

wildlife and successfully reproducing endangered blackbuck, spotted deer and

Nicobar pigeons.

• STATEMENT 2 is correct: It would also facilitate the exchange of genetic material

between the Indian zoos for maintaining genetic diversity and conservation

management made accessible to scientists and wildlife managers for implementing

conservation programs.

• Through this work, it has established Genetic Resource Bank for Indian wildlife.

• So far, genetic resources from 23 species of Indian wild animals have been collected

and preserved.

• This facility would increase the collection of genetic resources from wildlife through

collaboration with zoos in India

Q84.In recent time uranium contamination in the groundwater has increased. Which of the following is/are the prime factor for this?

a) Excessive extraction of groundwater causing decline in the water table.

b) Nitrate pollution due to overuse of fertilizers.

c) Increasing the water table due to good monsoon

d) Both a and b

Answer 84: (D)

Explanation:

Many of India’s aquifers are composed of clay, silt and gravel carried down from

Himalayan weathering by streams or uranium-rich granitic rocks. When over-pumping of

these aquifers’ groundwater occurs and their water levels decline, it induces oxidation

conditions that, in turn, enhance uranium enrichment in the shallow groundwater that

remains.

While the primary source of uranium is geogenic (naturally occurring), anthropogenic

(human-caused) factors such as groundwater table decline and nitrate pollution may

further enhance uranium mobilization. So both option A and option B are correct.

Increasing the water table due to good monsoon will not increase the concentration of

uranium in groundwater as the oxidation process will decrease only. So option (c) is

wrong.

Q85.Consider the following about ‘Zero Budget Natural Farming’:

1. ‘Zero budget’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut

production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers.

2. Under this initiative there is no use of chemicals.

3. The movement first evolved in Karnataka.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 2 only

c) 2 only

d) All of the above

Answer 85: (D)

Explanation : ZERO BUDGET NATURAL FARMING Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a set of farming methods, and also a grassroots peasant movement, which has spread to various states in India. The movement first evolved in Karnataka state was born out of collaboration between Mr Subhash Palekar, who put together the ZBNF practices, and the state farmers association Karnataka Rajya Raitha Sangha (KRRS), a member of La Via Campesina (LVC). ‘Zero budget’ farming promises to end a reliance on loans and drastically cut production costs, ending the debt cycle for desperate farmers. The word ‘budget’ refers to credit and expenses, thus the phrase ‘Zero Budget’ means without using any credit, and without spending any money on purchased inputs. Natural farming’ means farming with Nature and without chemicals.

Q86. The wildlife conservation in India dates back to time immemorial and the tribes and forest dwellers are torch bearers in the process.

Which of the following pairs of tribes and their states are correct?

COMMUNITY STATE

1. Idu Mishmi – Arunachal Pradesh

2. Chenchu – Andhra Pradesh

3. Bishnoi – Rajasthan Select the

correct code from the following:

a) 3 only

b) 1 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:86 (D) Explanation: The tribal cultures are intertwined with the healthy biodiversity of the area in which they are living. Till date some of the rich biodiversity lies in the sacred groves, which are worshipped and protected by the tribes in many parts of India. Some of the examples of them are the Idu Mishmi tribe from Arunachal Pradesh, Chenchu Tribe from Andhra Pradesh and the Bishnoi from Rajasthan. But there are many instances that these tribes are evacuated from their places in order to protect the wildlife in the area. These causes mass protest and loss of their livelihood as their whole life is interlinked to these forests.

Q87.‘Punganur cow’ recently seen in the news.

Consider the following statements about it:

1. Punganur cow, considered one of the world’s largest breeds of cattle.

2. It is on the verge of extinction due to cross-breeding being conducted by farmers.

3. It has become a status symbol in recent years as wealthy livestock farmers began buying it, believing it brings good luck.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 87(B)

Explanation:

Statement: 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct:The Punganur cow, considered one of the

world’s smallest breeds of cattle, is said to be on the verge of extinction due to cross-breeding being conducted by farmers, according to livestock journals.

The Punganur cow is diminutive, with a height of 70 cm to 90 cm and weighs around 115 to 200

kg. In comparison, the famous Ongole bull stands tall at 1.70 metres and weighs 500 kg. Both

breeds trace their origins to Andhra Pradesh.

Statement: 3 is correct: The Punganur cow has become a status symbol in recent years as wealthy livestock farmers began buying it, believing it brings good luck.

Q88. Which of the following statements is/are NOT true about Asiatic lion?

1. Asiatic lions are slightly bigger than African lions.

2. Asiatic lions were once distributed upto the state of West Bengal in the east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India.

3. At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer:88 (A) Explanation: Only statement 1 is not correct as Asiatic lions are slightly smaller than African lions. Adult males weigh 160 to 190 kg, while females weigh 110 to 120 kg.

The height at the shoulders is about 3.5 ft (110 cm).

Habitat and Distribution Asiatic lions were once distributed upto the state of West Bengal in the east and Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India.

At present Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion. The last surviving population of the Asiatic lions is a compact tract of dry deciduous forest and open grassy scrublands in southwestern part of Saurashtra region of Gujarat.

Q89.Recently, Scientists have confirmed that it is the first mammal to be officially driven extinct as a result of human-driven climate change. The name of that mammal is:

a) Unnuakomys hutchisoni

b) Daihua sanqiong

c) Bramble Cay melomy

d) Bristlenose catfish

Answer 89 (C) Explanation: Climate change induced by human beings has claimed its first victim in ‘Class Mammalia’ of the ‘Animal Kingdom’: the Bramble Cay melomys — a ‘little brown rat’ found in Australia. It was an endemic species of the isolated Bramble Cay, a vegetated coral cay located at the northern tip of the Great Barrier Reef.

Q90.With reference to the Low-Frequency Array (LOFAR) telescope recently seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is an international network of state-of-the-art telescopes and largest astrophysics projects in Europe used to observe the Universe.

2. It consists of 12 international stations spread across Germany, Poland, France, UK, Sweden and Ireland.

3. It is operated by the European Space Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 only

b) 2 and 3 only

c) 1 and 2 only

d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer 90:(C) Explanation:

Statements 1 and 2 are correct The Low Frequency Array (LOFAR) is an international network of state-of-the-art telescopes used to observe the Universe in unprecedented detail at low radio frequencies. LOFAR is one of the largest astrophysics projects in Europe, consisting of 12 international stations spread across Germany, Poland, France, UK, Sweden and Ireland, with additional stations and a central hub in the Netherlands, It is operated by the Netherlands Institute for Radio Astronomy (ASTRON). So statement 3 is incorrect

Q91.He is also referred to as Guru Rinpoche or second buddha, was born in India and is highly respected in Bhutan. His imprint is seen everywhere in Bhutan as there is an image or painting of the guru in every Bhutanese home or temple.

Who is being referred to in the above statements?

a) Padmasambhava

b) Vasubandhu

c) Kauṇḍinya

d) Nagarjuna

Answer 91:(A)

Explanation:

Guru Padmasambhava or Guru Rinpoche is known as the Second Buddha because he played a

seminal role in spreading Buddhism and Buddhist teachings across the Himalayan region,

including Northeast India, Nepal, Bhutan and Tibet.

Q92.Consider the following statements about “grey” lists and “black” lists of Financial Action Task Force:

1. Blacklisted countries are those that took weak measures to combat money laundering

and terror Financing

2. Grey Lists countries are those that are unwilling to fight money laundering and Terrorist Financing

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 92:(D)

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as Blacklisted countries are those that are unwilling to fight money

laundering and Terrorist Financing. Those who took weak measures are in the grey list and not in the blacklist.

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as Grey Lists countries are those that took weak measures to combat money laundering and terror.

Information: The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an inter-governmental body established in 1989 by the Ministers of its Member jurisdictions. The objectives of the FATF are to set standards and promote effective implementation of legal, regulatory and operational measures for combating money laundering, terrorist financing and other related threats to the integrity of the international financial system. The FATF is therefore a “policy-making body” which works to generate the necessary political will to bring about national legislative and regulatory reforms in these areas.

Q93.A Bhakti Saint had once told that the Hindus and Muslims are the different pots made from the same clay. He himself was a disciple of a follower of Saint Ramanuja.

Who is the saint mentioned in the above lines?

a) Guru Nanak

b) Namadeva

c) Kabir

d) Ramananda

Answer 93(C)

Explanation:

Kabir was a famous disciple of Ramananda. He emphasized the essential oneness of all religions by describing Hindus and Muslims ‘as pots of the same clay’. To him Rama and Allah, temple and mosque were the same. He regarded devotion to god as an effective means of salvation and urged that to achieve this one must have a pure heart, free from cruelty, dishonesty, hypocrisy, and insincerity. He is regarded as the greatest of the mystic saints and his followers are called Kabirpanthis.

Q94.‘Vorombe titan’, recently seen in the news is:

a) A replica of the Titanic ship.

b) A spacecraft of NASA to explore Saturn’s largest moon Titan.

c) An atomic watch used by ISRO in Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System to

provide exact time and location.

d) World’s largest bird which is extinct now.

Ans 94 (d)

Explanation

Vorombe titan It is an extinct Madagascan species which was three metres tall and weighed up to 800 kg. Recently, Vorombe Titan was named world’s largest bird. It is extinct now.

Q95.Mangi – Tungi, which is called as a gateway to the state of enlightenment is located in:

a) Maharashtra

b) Bihar

c) Himachal Pradesh

d) Karnataka

Ans 95(a)

Explanation: Mangi-Tungi is a twin peak with a plateau in between located near Nasik, Maharashtra. It is a famous pilgrimage and sacred place in the Jainism religion. Recently the Vishwa Shanti Ahimsa Sammelan or peace conference was inaugurated by the President of India at Mangi-Tungi. A 108 feet tall idol of Lord Rishabhdeva, first of Jain Teerthankar is located here.

Q96.With reference to the cultural history of India, the term ‘Amlaka’ refers to:

a) Temple architecture

b) Marriage rituals of Royal families

c) Dance style

d) Harvest festival

Ans 96 (a) Explanation: Amlaka, is a segmented or notched stone disk, usually with ridges on the rim, that sits on the top of a Hindu temple’s shikhara or main tower. According to one interpretation, the amlaka represents a lotus, and thus the symbolic seat for the deity below. Another interpretation is that it symbolizes the sun, and is thus the gateway to the heavenly world. The amlaka itself is crowned with a kalasam from which a temple banner is often hung.

Q97.With reference to the ‘States’ Startup Ranking 2018’ consider the following statements:

1. It was announced by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) and this exercise began from 2016.

2. Gujarat ranked the best performer and Karnataka, Kerala, Odisha, And Rajasthan are the top performers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer 97 : (C)

Explanation:

Both statements are correct

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) announced the results of the first ever States’ Start-up Ranking 2018 at an event in New Delhi. DIPP began this exercise from January, 2016.

States have been identified as leaders across various categories such as Start-up policy leaders, incubation hubs, seeding innovation, scaling innovation, regulatory change champions,

procurement leaders, communication champions, North-Eastern leader, and hill state leader.

● Best Performer:Gujarat

● Top Performer: Karnataka, Kerala, Odisha, and Rajasthan

● Leaders: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Telangan

Q98.Consider the following statements about ‘The Global Nutrition Report (GNR) 2018’:

1. It is released by the Food And Agriculture Organization (FAO).

2. It highlights that the global burden of malnutrition is very low.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 98(d)

Explanation:

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect as It is released by the World Health Organisation (WHO).

STATEMENT 2 is incorrect as It highlights that the global burden of malnutrition is unacceptably

high and now affects every country in the world. So global burden of malnutrition is very high.

Q99.The Rajiv Gauba Panel’ recently seen in news relates to:

a) Data protection

b) Mob Lynching

c) FDI

d) Disinvestment

Answer 99: (B)

Explanation:Rajiv Gauba Panel A panel headed by Union Home Secretary Rajiv Gauba, which deliberated on measures to check incidents of lynching, submitted its report to a Group of Ministers headed by Home Minister Rajnath Singh. The panel deliberated on such incidents and is learnt to have come to the conclusion that social media platforms also needed to act in a “time bound” manner. A senior government official said social media platforms — Facebook, WhatsApp, YouTube and Twitter — would be made accountable for not blocking such malicious posts/videos when brought to their notice and “FIR could be lodged against their country heads” for noncompliance of government orders and they could be prosecuted under law.

Q100.Consider the following statements about ‘Central Adoption Resource Agency’:

1. Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of Ministry of

Social Justice and Empowerment.

2. It is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in

accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Intercountry Adoption, 1993,

ratified by the Government of India in 2003.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans 100 (b)

Explanation

Central Adoption Resource Agency

STATEMENT 1 is incorrect: Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body of

Ministry of Women & Child Development, Government of India.

STATEMENT 2 is correct: It is designated as the Central Authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Intercountry Adoption, 1993, ratified by the Government of India in 2003. It functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions.

CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated /recognised adoption agencies.

UPSC Mock Test Description IAS Mock Test for Prelims 2019 – General Studies Paper 1
Number of Questions 100
Type of Questions Objective-type (MCQs)
Time Duration 2 hours
Answer Key + Explanation Yes
Score Calculation Calculate UPSC Prelims score

UPSC mock tests help the aspirants to acclimatize themselves to the IAS Exam Pattern and candidates can also assess their strengths and weaknesses.

UPSC Prelims 2019 Exam Date – Sunday, June 2, 2019

For UPSC 2019 aspirants, BYJU’S experts have created IAS mock tests after careful analysis of previous years’ question papers and trends.

Candidates can also check the subject-wise weightage in UPSC Prelims from 2011 to 2018 at the linked article.

For practice questions, preparation strategies, NCERT notes, free IAS study material, candidates can check out our Target UPSC Prelims 2019 page.

Note: For best results, candidates should take this IAS mock test in the stipulated time limit (with the help of the timer given) and go through the explanations of the answers carefully.

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