UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jan 28 – Feb 03 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jan 28 – Feb 03 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jan 28 – Feb 03
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: Art and CultureConsidered as the second-largest religious congregation in India after the Kumbh mela, the Ganga Sagar mela is hosted by which of the following states in India?
Correct
- The Ganga Sagar Mela is a religious festival and the second-biggest fair of India after the Kumbha Mela, celebrated on the Ganga Sagar Island, at the mouth of the river Hooghly in West Bengal.
- It is held in the month of January-February. It is attended by thousands of pilgrims every year. A dip in the water at this place, during Gangasagar Mela, is considered to be sacred.
Incorrect
- The Ganga Sagar Mela is a religious festival and the second-biggest fair of India after the Kumbha Mela, celebrated on the Ganga Sagar Island, at the mouth of the river Hooghly in West Bengal.
- It is held in the month of January-February. It is attended by thousands of pilgrims every year. A dip in the water at this place, during Gangasagar Mela, is considered to be sacred.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with regards to the Indian Pangolins:
- Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East.
- The Indian Pangolins are listed under Schedule I, Part I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
- Nandankanan Zoological Park (NZP) is the only conservation breeding centre for Indian pangolins in the world.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. It can be found at elevations up to 2500 m. The species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
- Pangolins are listed in Schedule I of India’s Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, implying the highest degree of protection.
- Nandankanan Zoological Park is the only conservation breeding centre of Indian Pangolins in the world.
Incorrect
- The Indian Pangolin is widely distributed in India, except in the arid region, high Himalayas and the North-East. It can be found at elevations up to 2500 m. The species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.
- Pangolins are listed in Schedule I of India’s Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, implying the highest degree of protection.
- Nandankanan Zoological Park is the only conservation breeding centre of Indian Pangolins in the world.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to India-UAE negotiations on the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA):
- The UAE is currently India’s third-largest trading partner after the US and China.
- The UAE is also India’s second-largest export destination after the US.
- India has signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- India and UAE share a robust trade relationship.
- UAE is India’s third-largest trading partner for the year 2019-20 after China and US.
- UAE is the second-largest export destination of India (after the US) with an amount of nearly US$ 29 billion for the year 2019-20.
- India is currently negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with UAE.
- Notably, India has a working CEPA with ASEAN, Japan and South Korea.
Incorrect
- India and UAE share a robust trade relationship.
- UAE is India’s third-largest trading partner for the year 2019-20 after China and US.
- UAE is the second-largest export destination of India (after the US) with an amount of nearly US$ 29 billion for the year 2019-20.
- India is currently negotiating a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) with UAE.
- Notably, India has a working CEPA with ASEAN, Japan and South Korea.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following statements is not correct with regards to the GST compensation to be given to the states?
- Under the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017, states are guaranteed compensation for loss of revenue on account of implementation of GST for a transition period of five years between 2017 and 2022.
- The compensation is calculated based on the difference between the states’ current GST revenue and the protected revenue after estimating an annualised 10% growth rate from the base year of 2015-16.
- The amount would be paid every two months based on provisional accounts, and adjusted every year after the State’s accounts were audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
Options:
Correct
- Under the GST law, states are compensated for any loss of revenue arising on account of the implementation of GST for five years till June 2022.
- The compensation is calculated based on the difference between the states’ current GST revenue and the protected revenue after estimating an annualised 14% growth rate from the base year of 2015-16.
- The amount would be paid every two months based on provisional accounts, and adjusted every year after the State’s accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
Incorrect
- Under the GST law, states are compensated for any loss of revenue arising on account of the implementation of GST for five years till June 2022.
- The compensation is calculated based on the difference between the states’ current GST revenue and the protected revenue after estimating an annualised 14% growth rate from the base year of 2015-16.
- The amount would be paid every two months based on provisional accounts, and adjusted every year after the State’s accounts are audited by the Comptroller and Auditor General.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to Bamboo in India:
- The restructured National Bamboo Mission was launched in 2018-19 for the holistic development of the complete value chain of the bamboo sector and is being implemented in a hub (industry) and spoke model.
- The Indian Forest Act 1927 was amended in 2017 to include bamboo for the category of trees.
- The bamboo’s calorific value is equal to that of coal.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
The Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 was promulgated on November 23, 2017. It amends the Indian Forest Act, 1927. Under the Act, the definition of tree includes palms, bamboos, stumps, brush-wood and canes. The Ordinance amends this definition to remove the word bamboos.
Incorrect
The Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 was promulgated on November 23, 2017. It amends the Indian Forest Act, 1927. Under the Act, the definition of tree includes palms, bamboos, stumps, brush-wood and canes. The Ordinance amends this definition to remove the word bamboos.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: PolityIn India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? (UPSC-2019)
Correct
- Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.
- It is a commitment on the producer to facilitate a reverse collection mechanism and recycling of end of life, post-consumer waste. The objective is to circle it back into the system to recover resources embedded in the waste.
- In the last few years, India has framed laws that have introduced the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility for plastic packaging waste and e-waste.
- The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced ‘extended producer responsibility’.
Incorrect
- Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility – financial and/or physical – for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.
- It is a commitment on the producer to facilitate a reverse collection mechanism and recycling of end of life, post-consumer waste. The objective is to circle it back into the system to recover resources embedded in the waste.
- In the last few years, India has framed laws that have introduced the concept of Extended Producer Responsibility for plastic packaging waste and e-waste.
- The e-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011 introduced ‘extended producer responsibility’.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: EconomyWhich of the following items is/are kept outside the purview of GST?
- Alcohol for human consumption
- Petroleum Products
- Medicines
Options:
Correct
- The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a tax on goods and services.
- It is an indirect tax that has mostly superseded several other indirect taxes in India, such as excise duty, VAT, and services tax.
- At present, the following items are kept outside the purview of GST in India:
- Alcohol for human consumption: In India, alcohol for human consumption is currently exempt from the GST regime. The taxes on alcohol for human use, on the other hand, will remain in place as they were before the establishment of the GST. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Petroleum products: Petroleum products such as crude oil, motor spirit (petrol), high-speed diesel, natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel, among others, are exempt from GST in India. However, the taxes on these items will be levied in accordance with the framework in place before the implementation of GST. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Medicines: GST levies on pharmaceutical products can range between different tax rates, i.e. Nil, 5%, 12% and 18%. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
- The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is a tax on goods and services.
- It is an indirect tax that has mostly superseded several other indirect taxes in India, such as excise duty, VAT, and services tax.
- At present, the following items are kept outside the purview of GST in India:
- Alcohol for human consumption: In India, alcohol for human consumption is currently exempt from the GST regime. The taxes on alcohol for human use, on the other hand, will remain in place as they were before the establishment of the GST. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Petroleum products: Petroleum products such as crude oil, motor spirit (petrol), high-speed diesel, natural gas, and aviation turbine fuel, among others, are exempt from GST in India. However, the taxes on these items will be levied in accordance with the framework in place before the implementation of GST. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
- Medicines: GST levies on pharmaceutical products can range between different tax rates, i.e. Nil, 5%, 12% and 18%. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith reference to Algal blooms, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Algal blooms may occur in freshwater as well as marine environments.
- Harmful algal blooms can produce extremely dangerous toxins that can sicken or kill people and animals.
Options:
Correct
- Algal blooms may appear in both freshwater and marine habitats. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Overgrowths of algae in water are known as harmful algal blooms. Harmful algal blooms may produce very toxic poisons that can make humans and animals sick or even kill them. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
- Algal blooms may appear in both freshwater and marine habitats. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Overgrowths of algae in water are known as harmful algal blooms. Harmful algal blooms may produce very toxic poisons that can make humans and animals sick or even kill them. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: HistoryWhich amongst the following is the best description of the Bambatha Rebellion?
Correct
- The Zulu rebellion against British control in southern Africa was known as the Bambatha Rebellion. The insurrection took place in Zululand, now KwaZulu-Natal, South Africa, in 1906.
- Hence Option D is correct.
Incorrect
- The Zulu rebellion against British control in southern Africa was known as the Bambatha Rebellion. The insurrection took place in Zululand, now KwaZulu-Natal, South Africa, in 1906.
- Hence Option D is correct.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with respect to Sufism:
- It gained prominence in the 10th and 11th centuries during the reign of the Delhi Sultanate.
- The Chisti Silsila was founded by Shihabuddin in Baghdad and was established in India by Bahauddin Zakariya.
- The Chistis accepted maintenance grants from the Sultans and took an active part in politics.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Many native Indian ideas, including yogic postures, music, and dance, were absorbed by Sufism in India. During the time of the Delhi Sultanate in the 10th and 11th centuries, Sufism rose to prominence. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Khwaja Muin-ud-din Chisti (also known as Gharib Nawaz) founded the Chisti order in India in 1192 CE. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
- The Chistis avoided the company of kings and nobles, preferring to stay out of state politics. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
Incorrect
- Many native Indian ideas, including yogic postures, music, and dance, were absorbed by Sufism in India. During the time of the Delhi Sultanate in the 10th and 11th centuries, Sufism rose to prominence. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
- Khwaja Muin-ud-din Chisti (also known as Gharib Nawaz) founded the Chisti order in India in 1192 CE. Hence Statement 2 is not correct.
- The Chistis avoided the company of kings and nobles, preferring to stay out of state politics. Hence Statement 3 is not correct.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’?
Correct
- The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system designed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate inter-bank transactions through mobile phones.
- UPI allows you to send money instantly from your bank account to multiple retailers without having to type in your credit card number or your net banking or wallet password.
- UPI is a payment mechanism that allows you to send money from one bank account to another using your smartphone.
- Hence Option A is correct.
Incorrect
- The Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is a real-time payment system designed by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) to facilitate inter-bank transactions through mobile phones.
- UPI allows you to send money instantly from your bank account to multiple retailers without having to type in your credit card number or your net banking or wallet password.
- UPI is a payment mechanism that allows you to send money from one bank account to another using your smartphone.
- Hence Option A is correct.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Art and CultureWhich of the following is/are the Percussion Instruments?
- Alingya
- Chenda
- Kamaicha
- Oordhwaka
Options:
Correct
- Four major categories of musical instruments include:
- Percussion instruments (Avanaddha vadya)
- Ghana Vadya or idiophones
- Sushira vadya or aerophones
- Tata vadya or chordophones
- Alingya, Chenda and Oordhwaka are percussion instruments while Kamaicha is a string instrument.
Incorrect
- Four major categories of musical instruments include:
- Percussion instruments (Avanaddha vadya)
- Ghana Vadya or idiophones
- Sushira vadya or aerophones
- Tata vadya or chordophones
- Alingya, Chenda and Oordhwaka are percussion instruments while Kamaicha is a string instrument.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: GeographyArrange the following hills from North to South:
- Ramgarh Hills
- Garhjat Hills
- Nallamala Hills
- Ponmudi Hills
Options:
Correct
- Garhjat Hills is located in the state of Odisha.
- Nallamala Hills is located across the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
- Ponmudi Hills is located in Kerala.
Incorrect
- Garhjat Hills is located in the state of Odisha.
- Nallamala Hills is located across the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
- Ponmudi Hills is located in Kerala.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyWith reference to Kaziranga National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is designated as an ‘Important Bird Area’ by Birdlife International.
- It is the home of the world’s most one-horned rhinos.
- UNESCO has declared Kaziranga National Park a World Heritage Site.
Options:
Correct
- Kaziranga National Park is a national park located in the state of Assam. It hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses and is a declared World Heritage Site.
- It is also designated as an ‘Important Bird Area’ by Birdlife International.
Incorrect
- Kaziranga National Park is a national park located in the state of Assam. It hosts two-thirds of the world’s great one-horned rhinoceroses and is a declared World Heritage Site.
- It is also designated as an ‘Important Bird Area’ by Birdlife International.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: G KBasel Norms often seen in news seeks to
Correct
- Basel norms or Basel accords are the international banking regulations issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. The Basel norms are an effort to coordinate banking regulations across the globe, with the goal of strengthening the international banking system.
- It aims to strengthen regulation, supervision and risk management for more resilient banks and banking systems.
Incorrect
- Basel norms or Basel accords are the international banking regulations issued by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision. The Basel norms are an effort to coordinate banking regulations across the globe, with the goal of strengthening the international banking system.
- It aims to strengthen regulation, supervision and risk management for more resilient banks and banking systems.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following pairs: (UPSC 2013)
National Park River flowing through the Park
- Corbett National Park: Ganga
- Kaziranga National Park: Manas
- Silent Valley National Park: Kaveri
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
Correct
- Corbett National Park: Ramganga
- Kaziranga National Park: Brahmaputra, Diphlu, Mora Diphlu and Mora Dhansiri
- Silent Valley National Park: Kunthipuzha
Incorrect
- Corbett National Park: Ramganga
- Kaziranga National Park: Brahmaputra, Diphlu, Mora Diphlu and Mora Dhansiri
- Silent Valley National Park: Kunthipuzha
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with regards to ISRO’s Gaganyaan mission:
- The formal announcement of the Gaganyaan programme was made by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day address on August 15, 2018.
- The initial target was to launch human spaceflight before the 75th anniversary of India’s independence on August 15, 2022.
- GSLV Mk III, also called the LVM-3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3,) the three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan as it has the necessary payload capability.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The Gaganyaan Programme envisages undertaking the demonstration of human spaceflight to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) in the short term and will lay the foundation for a sustained Indian human space exploration programme in the long run.
- The objective of the Gaganyaan programme is to demonstrate the indigenous capability to undertake human space flight missions to LEO.
- As part of this programme, two unmanned missions and one manned mission are approved by the Government of India (GoI).
- The initial target was to launch human spaceflight before the 75th anniversary of India’s independence on August 15, 2022. However, due to the pandemic, this timeline has been shifted. The two unmanned flights under the Gaganyaan mission will happen in 2022 and the third, carrying an Indian crew will happen in 2023.
- GSLV Mk III, heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan.
Incorrect
- The Gaganyaan Programme envisages undertaking the demonstration of human spaceflight to Low Earth Orbit (LEO) in the short term and will lay the foundation for a sustained Indian human space exploration programme in the long run.
- The objective of the Gaganyaan programme is to demonstrate the indigenous capability to undertake human space flight missions to LEO.
- As part of this programme, two unmanned missions and one manned mission are approved by the Government of India (GoI).
- The initial target was to launch human spaceflight before the 75th anniversary of India’s independence on August 15, 2022. However, due to the pandemic, this timeline has been shifted. The two unmanned flights under the Gaganyaan mission will happen in 2022 and the third, carrying an Indian crew will happen in 2023.
- GSLV Mk III, heavy lift launch vehicle, will be used to launch Gaganyaan.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following statements is not correct with regards to the Pangong Tso lake?
Correct
- Pangong Tso is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet. It has a land-locked basin separated from the Indus River basin by a small elevated ridge, but is believed to have been part of the latter in prehistoric times.
- Lake Baikal is the highest freshwater lake. It is in the southern part of eastern Siberia, Russia.
Incorrect
- Pangong Tso is an endorheic lake spanning eastern Ladakh and West Tibet. It has a land-locked basin separated from the Indus River basin by a small elevated ridge, but is believed to have been part of the latter in prehistoric times.
- Lake Baikal is the highest freshwater lake. It is in the southern part of eastern Siberia, Russia.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to the Nuclear Non-proliferation Treaty:
- Ever since it came into effect in 1970 after it was opened for signing in 1968, the Non-Proliferation Treaty has 187 nations who are a party to it – more than any other arms limitation treaty.
- The Non-Proliferation Treaty prohibits the nations who don’t have nuclear weapons from acquiring them, at the same time prohibiting the nuclear states from helping others in acquiring the weapons.
- The International Atomic Energy Agency, which is the successor of the United Nations Atomic Energy Commission, verifies compliance with the treaty.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- The Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament.
- Opened for signature in 1968, the treaty entered into force in 1970.
Incorrect
- The Non-Proliferation Treaty or NPT is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to promote cooperation in the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to further the goal of achieving nuclear disarmament and general and complete disarmament.
- Opened for signature in 1968, the treaty entered into force in 1970.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with regards to the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) and its specialized bodies:
- The Headquarters and Secretariat of the Association are in Dhaka, Bangladesh.
- Degrees and Certificates awarded by the South Asian University in India are at par with the respective Degrees and Certificates awarded by the National Universities/Institutions.
- SAARC Arbitration Council is an inter-governmental body having its office in Pakistan and is mandated to provide a legal framework/forum within the region for fair and efficient settlement of commercial, industrial, trade, banking, investment and such other disputes.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- The headquarters and Secretariat of SAARC are in Kathmandu, Nepal.
Incorrect
- The headquarters and Secretariat of SAARC are in Kathmandu, Nepal.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: HealthWhich one of the following statements is not correct? (UPSC-2019)
Correct
There are vaccines to prevent hepatitis A and hepatitis B; however, no vaccine is available for hepatitis C.
Incorrect
There are vaccines to prevent hepatitis A and hepatitis B; however, no vaccine is available for hepatitis C.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with regards to the tribal rights in India:
- 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act makes it mandatory for the seats to be reserved for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled Tribes (STs) in proportion to their population.
- Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, one-third of the seats reserved for SCs and STs are also reserved for women.
- States with population up to 20 lakh are exempted from providing reservations to STs at all levels of panchayats.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- 243B of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. However, it also states that panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
- There is no such provision regarding the reservation of seats for tribals.
Incorrect
- 243B of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be constituted in every State, Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels. However, it also states that panchayats at the intermediate level may not be constituted in a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakhs.
- There is no such provision regarding the reservation of seats for tribals.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Science and Technology“S-gene Target Failure Strategy”, often seen in the news, is related to which of the following?
Correct
- The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has approved a testing kit for detecting the Omicron variant of SARS-CoV-2. The kit will be used to confirm Omicron in patients with its S-Gene Target Failure (SGTF) strategy.
Incorrect
- The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) has approved a testing kit for detecting the Omicron variant of SARS-CoV-2. The kit will be used to confirm Omicron in patients with its S-Gene Target Failure (SGTF) strategy.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements with regards to Cotton Cultivation:
- Gujarat leads the states in India in terms of cotton production.
- Cotton requires well-drained black soil for cultivation.
- There is no MSP protection for cotton in India.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
- Gujarat is the largest cotton-producing state in India. The state accounts for around 30% of the total cotton production in the country.
- Cotton requires well-drained black soil for cultivation. Black soils are very fine-grained and dark and contain a high proportion of calcium and magnesium carbonates. They also have a high moisture retention capacity which is required for cotton plants.
- Government announces minimum support price (MSP) for raw cotton as well.
Incorrect
- Gujarat is the largest cotton-producing state in India. The state accounts for around 30% of the total cotton production in the country.
- Cotton requires well-drained black soil for cultivation. Black soils are very fine-grained and dark and contain a high proportion of calcium and magnesium carbonates. They also have a high moisture retention capacity which is required for cotton plants.
- Government announces minimum support price (MSP) for raw cotton as well.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with regards to the famous social reformer Saint Chavara:
- He led the Pallikkoodam movement which involved setting up schools in church premises, thus enabling universal access to education.
- In 1846, he established a Sanskrit school in Mannanam in Kerala, that enabled ordinary people to study the sacred Hindu literature in Sanskrit.
- He started free mid-day meals to reduce drop-outs among the poor and Dalit students, a practice which influenced the diwan of Travancore, CP Ramaswamy Iyer, to plan mid-day meals in government schools in 1936.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Saint Chavara was an Indian Syro-Malabar Catholic priest, philosopher and social reformer.
- He led the Pallikkoodam movement which involved setting up schools on church premises. He also started free mid-day meals to reduce drop-outs among the poor and Dalit students.
- In 1846, he established a Sanskrit school in Mannanam in Kerala.
Incorrect
- Saint Chavara was an Indian Syro-Malabar Catholic priest, philosopher and social reformer.
- He led the Pallikkoodam movement which involved setting up schools on church premises. He also started free mid-day meals to reduce drop-outs among the poor and Dalit students.
- In 1846, he established a Sanskrit school in Mannanam in Kerala.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyRecently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (UPSC-2019)
Correct
- The observation involved the merging of two black holes. Upon merging they twisted together to form a single spinning hole. The missing mass after merging, became energy, expelled as gravitational waves.
- In the experiment, it was observed that gravitational wave detectors detected signals whereas black holes emit no electromagnetic radiation and are impossible to directly observe, gravitational waves provide an opportunity to study and understand them.
Incorrect
- The observation involved the merging of two black holes. Upon merging they twisted together to form a single spinning hole. The missing mass after merging, became energy, expelled as gravitational waves.
- In the experiment, it was observed that gravitational wave detectors detected signals whereas black holes emit no electromagnetic radiation and are impossible to directly observe, gravitational waves provide an opportunity to study and understand them.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: GeographyWith reference to Caspian Sea, which of the following statements is/are Correct?
- It is the world’s largest inland body of water.
- The Caspian Sea is endorheic.
- Volga, Ural, and Terek empty into the Caspian Sea.
Options:
Correct
- The Caspian Sea is the world’s largest inland body of water. It lies to the east of the Caucasus Mountains and the west of the vast steppe of Central Asia. The sea’s name derives from the ancient Kaspi peoples, who once lived in Transcaucasia to the west.
- It is an endorheic basin that lies between Europe and Asia. The sea is bordered by Kazakhstan in the northeast, by Turkmenistan in the southeast, by Iran in the south, by Azerbaijan in the southwest, and by Russia in the northwest.
- The shores of the northern Caspian are low and reflect the great accumulation of alluvial material washed down by the Ural, Terek, and Volga rivers that empty into the sea whose deltas are extensive.
Incorrect
- The Caspian Sea is the world’s largest inland body of water. It lies to the east of the Caucasus Mountains and the west of the vast steppe of Central Asia. The sea’s name derives from the ancient Kaspi peoples, who once lived in Transcaucasia to the west.
- It is an endorheic basin that lies between Europe and Asia. The sea is bordered by Kazakhstan in the northeast, by Turkmenistan in the southeast, by Iran in the south, by Azerbaijan in the southwest, and by Russia in the northwest.
- The shores of the northern Caspian are low and reflect the great accumulation of alluvial material washed down by the Ural, Terek, and Volga rivers that empty into the sea whose deltas are extensive.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following countries share its border with the Aral Sea?
- Russia
- Azerbaijan
- Kazakhstan
- Uzbekistan
Options:
Correct
- The Aral Sea separates Kazakhstan from Uzbekistan to the north and Uzbekistan from Kazakhstan to the south.
- It was previously Central Asia’s largest saltwater lake spanning 63,000 square kilometers. However, the lake started shrinking in the 1960s, when the Soviet government decided to divert two of its main rivers, the Syr-Darya and the Amu-Darya, to irrigate the surrounding arid region.
- It is the world’s fourth-largest body of inland water.
Incorrect
- The Aral Sea separates Kazakhstan from Uzbekistan to the north and Uzbekistan from Kazakhstan to the south.
- It was previously Central Asia’s largest saltwater lake spanning 63,000 square kilometers. However, the lake started shrinking in the 1960s, when the Soviet government decided to divert two of its main rivers, the Syr-Darya and the Amu-Darya, to irrigate the surrounding arid region.
- It is the world’s fourth-largest body of inland water.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: SchemesWith respect to Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PM FME) Scheme, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme that aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry.
- It has an outlay of Rs. 10,000 crore over a period of five years from 2020-21 to 2024-25.
Options:
Correct
- Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PM FME) Scheme was launched on 29th June 2020.
- It is a part of Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme. The share of expenditure under the PM FME scheme is as follows:
- 60:40 between the central government and state governments and UTS with the legislature
- 90:10 between central and North Eastern and Himalayan states
- 100 percent central assistance for UTs without legislatures.
- It aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry and promote formalization of the sector and support Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Self Help Groups (SHGs), and Producers Cooperatives along their entire value chain.
- Under the scheme, 2,00,000 micro food processing units will be directly assisted with credit-linked subsidies.
- It has an outlay of 10,000 crore and will run for five years – 2020-21 to 2024-25. The central government will bear the expenditure for the first year irrespective of who incurs it; later it will be adjusted in the ratio mentioned above; in the next four years.
- The central government will provide funds to the state based on the approved Project Implementation Plan (PIP).
- One-District One-Product Approach (ODOP) plan to be implemented to encompass input procurement, common services availability, and product marketing.
Incorrect
- Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro food processing Enterprises (PM FME) Scheme was launched on 29th June 2020.
- It is a part of Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan.
- It is a centrally sponsored scheme. The share of expenditure under the PM FME scheme is as follows:
- 60:40 between the central government and state governments and UTS with the legislature
- 90:10 between central and North Eastern and Himalayan states
- 100 percent central assistance for UTs without legislatures.
- It aims to enhance the competitiveness of existing individual micro-enterprises in the unorganized segment of the food processing industry and promote formalization of the sector and support Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs), Self Help Groups (SHGs), and Producers Cooperatives along their entire value chain.
- Under the scheme, 2,00,000 micro food processing units will be directly assisted with credit-linked subsidies.
- It has an outlay of 10,000 crore and will run for five years – 2020-21 to 2024-25. The central government will bear the expenditure for the first year irrespective of who incurs it; later it will be adjusted in the ratio mentioned above; in the next four years.
- The central government will provide funds to the state based on the approved Project Implementation Plan (PIP).
- One-District One-Product Approach (ODOP) plan to be implemented to encompass input procurement, common services availability, and product marketing.
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- As per Article 348 of the Constitution of India, English is the official language for all the courts in India.
- The Governor of a state, with the consent of the Chief Justice of the relevant High Court, can authorize use of official language of the state in proceedings before its high court.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct.
As per Article 348 of the Constitution of India,
- All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court (Not all the Courts).
- The authoritative texts of all,
- Bills to be introduced or amendments to be moved in either House of Parliament or in the House or either House of the Legislature of a State,
- Acts passed by Parliament or the Legislature of a State and all Ordinances
- Orders, rules, regulations and bye-laws issued under this Constitution.
“shall be in the English language”.
- Statement 2 is not correct.
The Governor of a State may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of the Hindi language, or any other language used for any official purposes of the State, in proceedings in the High Court having its principal seat in that State: Provided that nothing in this clause shall apply to any judgment, decree or order passed or made by such High Court.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct.
As per Article 348 of the Constitution of India,
- All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court (Not all the Courts).
- The authoritative texts of all,
- Bills to be introduced or amendments to be moved in either House of Parliament or in the House or either House of the Legislature of a State,
- Acts passed by Parliament or the Legislature of a State and all Ordinances
- Orders, rules, regulations and bye-laws issued under this Constitution.
“shall be in the English language”.
- Statement 2 is not correct.
The Governor of a State may, with the previous consent of the President, authorise the use of the Hindi language, or any other language used for any official purposes of the State, in proceedings in the High Court having its principal seat in that State: Provided that nothing in this clause shall apply to any judgment, decree or order passed or made by such High Court.
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