22 December 2023 CNA
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. GS 1 Related B. GS 2 Related GOVERNANCE 1. Analyzing the Post Office Bill, 2023 C. GS 3 Related SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY 1. As JN.1 emerges as variant of interest, time to evaluate preparedness D. GS 4 Related E. Editorials F. Prelims Facts 1. Missing for 42 years, Namdapha flying squirrel resurfaces in Arunachal Pradesh G. Tidbits 1. Bengaluru airport wins award at UNESCO’s 2023 Prix Versailles 2. India receives price bids for 26 Rafale jets, 3 submarines 3. Centre approves deployment of CISF in Parliament complex H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
A. GS 1 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
B. GS 2 Related
1. Analyzing the Post Office Bill, 2023
Syllabus: Government Policies and Interventions for Development in various sectors and Issues arising out of their Design and Implementation
Mains: Provision of Post Office Bill & issues associated with it
Introduction: Recently, the Indian Parliament passed the Post Office Bill, aiming to replace the archaic Indian Post Office Act of 1898.Â
- Positioned as a transformative legislation, it endeavours to enhance the functionality of the Postal Department, serving both as a messenger service and a provider of banking facilities.Â
Key Features of the Bill:
- The Post Office Bill, 2023 introduces provisions allowing the interception of postal articles based on grounds such as state security, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, emergencies, public safety, or contravention of the Bill or other laws.Â
- The appointed officer-in-charge, designated by the Union government, holds the authority to ‘intercept, open, or detain’ any postal article for the stated reasons.Â
- The Bill grants flexibility to dispose of intercepted items as deemed appropriate by the government.Â
- Additionally, the Union government can authorize Post Office officers to deliver suspected articles to customs or other specified authorities.
- Crucially, the Bill exempts the Post Office from liability unless officers act fraudulently or willfully cause loss, delay, or mis-delivery.Â
- Notably, it lacks offences and penalties, except for the recovery of unpaid amounts as arrears of land revenue.Â
- This departure from the 1898 Act, which prescribed severe penalties for offenses like theft and misappropriation, has stirred debates.
Historical Context of the Bill:
- The Post Office Bill follows a historical trajectory, echoing elements present in the 1898 Act.Â
- Similar to the ’emergency’ ground in the current Bill, the 1898 Act permitted interception during a ‘public emergency.’Â
- However, the Law Commission of India’s 38th report critiqued this provision, urging alignment with the Constitution.Â
- The report led to the 1981 Telegraph (Amendment) Act, introducing safeguards against arbitrary interception.
- Earlier attempts to address interception were seen in the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill, 1986.Â
- However, this Bill faced hurdles, including non-assent by then-President Zail Singh. The lack of resolution resulted in its withdrawal by the Vajpayee government in 2002.
Concerns Raised by Opposition Leaders:
- Opposition leaders have expressed reservations about the Post Office Bill, particularly concerning privacy rights. It violates the fundamental right to privacy. The absence of guidelines, according to some leaders, opens the door to state surveillance, potentially infringing on constitutional rights.
- They coined the term “Big Brother syndrome,” suggesting that the Bill enables government monitoring of citizens.Â
- Concerns were also raised about the lack of clarity on grounds for interception, with terms like ’emergency’ deemed vague and arbitrary.Â
- The absence of a defined procedure for interception and the empowerment of officers to ‘open and detain’ shipments without clear selection criteria further fueled apprehensions.
- MP Shashi Tharoor highlighted the absence of a grievance redressal mechanism for citizens.Â
- He emphasized that citizens, despite being relieved of any liability, lack avenues to contest or raise concerns about interception, violating principles of natural justice and due process.
Relevant Supreme Court Rulings:
- In the People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) versus the Union of India (1996), the Supreme Court recognized the right to privacy as fundamental.Â
- It mandated safeguards against arbitrariness in state surveillance, emphasizing the need for a just and fair procedure.
- The landmark verdict in Justice KS Puttaswamy versus Union of India (2017) declared privacy a fundamental right.Â
- The judgment outlined criteria for state measures interfering with privacy, including legality, legitimate goals, suitability, necessity, proportionality, and procedural safeguards.
Expert Opinions:
- Legal experts expressed concerns about the Post Office Bill’s lack of safeguards. They emphasize the necessity for justifiable reasons recorded in writing for interceptions, citing the potential for state surveillance without adequate safeguards.
- They also highlight the connection between interception provisions and citizen services, raising alarms about potential privacy violations.Â
- The absence of written orders and safeguards exacerbates these concerns, creating a scenario ripe for abuse.
Conclusion:
- As India navigates the complexities of security and privacy in the digital age, the Post Office Bill, 2023, emerges as a focal point of debate.Â
- Balancing the need for interception for national security with safeguarding citizens’ privacy rights requires meticulous consideration.Â
- The concerns raised by opposition leaders, the historical context, Supreme Court rulings, and expert opinions underscore the imperative for a nuanced approach in shaping legislation that aligns with constitutional principles and protects individual rights.
Nut Graf: The Post Office Bill, 2023, passed by the Indian Parliament, replacing the 1898 Act, sparks debates on security and privacy. Introducing interception provisions, the Bill faces opposition concerns about violating privacy rights. Historical context, Supreme Court rulings, and expert opinions underscore the need for a balanced legislative approach.
C. GS 3 Related
Category: SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY
1. As JN.1 emerges as variant of interest, time to evaluate preparedness
Syllabus: Biotechnology
Mains: Covid mutation & potential implication on public health
Context: The resurgence of COVID-19 has taken centre stage, introducing a new player on the global health scene—the JN.1 sub-variant.Â
- Nearly a year and a half after the world seemingly relaxed its grip on the pandemic, the identification of JN.1 has reignited interest in the epidemiological world and raised concerns about the potential implications for public health.
Classification of JN.1:
- The World Health Organisation (WHO) has redefined its criteria for Variants of Interest (VOIs), placing JN.1 in the spotlight.Â
- JN.1, part of the BA.2.86 sublineages, exhibits genetic changes predicted to impact virus characteristics like transmissibility, virulence, and susceptibility to therapeutics.Â
- Its rapid spread prompted the WHO to classify it as a separate VOI from its parent lineage, BA.2.86.
Global Public Health Risk Evaluation:
- While the WHO currently assesses the additional global public health risk posed by JN.1 as low, a looming challenge emerges with the onset of winter in the Northern Hemisphere.Â
- JN.1’s potential to increase respiratory infections warrants global preparedness.Â
- Nations must gear up for a possible surge in cases, adopting effective strategies to prevent severe diseases and fatalities.
Global Response and Monitoring:
- The WHO has committed to continuous monitoring of the JN.1 variant, pledging to modify guidance based on evolving situations.Â
- The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) in the United States, tracking JN.1 since August 2023, observes its continued growth.Â
- While there is no evidence suggesting increased severity, the CDC acknowledges the possibility of heightened transmissibility or immune system evasion.
Cases in India:
- As the JN.1 variant makes its presence known in India, the Union Health Ministry remains vigilant.Â
- The first case detected in Kerala has prompted an alert, although no clusters associated with JN.1 have been reported. Despite the rise in the daily COVID-19 positivity rate in some states, the variant, at present, is not an immediate cause for concern.Â
- India has detected 21 cases of the JN.1 sub-variant, with a majority experiencing mild symptoms and successful recoveries.
- The debate regarding an additional dose of vaccination to combat JN.1 looms large in India.Â
- Epidemiologists, while considering this option, emphasize the importance of achieving high coverage—around 95%—of two vaccine doses combined with immunity from natural infections.Â
- This layered approach aims to fortify the country against the progression of JN.1 from a Variant of Interest (VOI) to a Variant of Concern (VOC).
Evolution of Pathogens and Diagnostics:
- All viruses, including SARS-CoV-2, undergo changes over time. While many changes have minimal impact, some can significantly alter the virus’s properties, affecting transmission, disease severity, and the efficacy of vaccines and therapeutics.Â
- Over the past two years, diagnostic technology has seen enhancements, with artificial intelligence contributing to tools like AI-assisted X-rays, aiding in more efficient detection and response.
Global Collaboration and Data Sharing:
- Understanding the evolving nature of pathogens requires global collaboration and robust data sharing.Â
- The WHO, recognizing the significance of timely information, emphasizes the need for nations to enhance surveillance, sequence variants, and share data promptly.Â
- The last three years of the pandemic underscore the importance of data sharing in mounting an effective global response.
- The WHO’s Virus Evolution Working Group, later becoming the Technical Advisory Group on SARS-CoV-2 Virus Evolution, was established in response to the emergence of variants posing increased risks.Â
- In late 2020, the characterization of variants as VOIs and VOCs prioritized global monitoring, research, and adjustments to the COVID-19 response.
Conclusion:
- As the world grapples with the JN.1 sub-variant, a proactive stance is crucial.Â
- Global vigilance, robust diagnostics, and collaborative efforts are essential components of an effective strategy. Adapting responses based on continuous monitoring ensures readiness against evolving pathogens in the ever-changing landscape of infectious diseases.Â
- The collective response of nations will determine our ability to navigate and mitigate the challenges posed by JN.1 and future variants, securing global health in an uncertain landscape.
Nut Graf: The JN.1 sub-variant of COVID-19 has emerged, sparking global concern. With redefined criteria by the World Health Organisation (WHO), nations grapple with its classification as a Variant of Interest. The article explores global responses, cases in India, vaccination debates, pathogen evolution, and the imperative of global collaboration to navigate and mitigate the challenges posed by JN.1 and future variants.
D. GS 2 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
E. Editorials
Nothing here for today!!!
F. Prelims Facts
1. Missing for 42 years, Namdapha flying squirrel resurfaces in Arunachal Pradesh
Syllabus: GS 3- Environment
Prelims: About Namdapha flying squirrel
Introduction
- After an absence of 42 years, the Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamoyopterus biswasi) has been rediscovered in Arunachal Pradesh.
Background
- The Namdapha flying squirrel was last described in 1981 based on a single individual found in the Namdapha Tiger Reserve.
- Subsequent expeditions failed to locate the nocturnal mammal, leading to theories that it might have been mistaken for a similar species or, worse, faced extinction.
Rediscovery Details
- A team successfully sighted the Namdapha flying squirrel in April 2022.
- The mammal was spotted high up on a tree, exhibiting reddish and grizzled fur characteristics.
- A study is being designed to collect DNA samples of the rediscovered squirrel for comparison with the DNA of the individual collected in 1981.
Significance of Rediscovery
- If confirmed, the rediscovery of the Namdapha flying squirrel will serve as a powerful flagship for the conservation of the Namdapha Tiger Reserve and its diverse wildlife.
- The event highlights the importance of continued efforts in biodiversity conservation and the need for sustained exploration to understand and protect endangered species.
G. Tidbits
1. Bengaluru airport wins award at UNESCO’s 2023 Prix Versailles
- Kempegowda International Airport’s Terminal 2 (T2) in Bengaluru was recognized at UNESCO’s 2023 Prix Versailles.
- T2 was awarded a special prize for interiors and declared one of the world’s most beautiful airports.
- The World Judges Panel, chaired by fashion designer Elie Saab, announced the accolade.
- Prix Versailles emphasises intelligent sustainability, innovation, local heritage reflection, ecological efficiency, and social interaction values.
- T2 is named “Terminal in a Garden.”
- Recognition highlights the architectural excellence and aesthetic appeal of the airport terminal.
2. India receives price bids for 26 Rafale jets, 3 submarines
- India received price bids from France for 26 Rafale-M carrier-based fighters and three additional Scorpene-class submarines.
- Rafale-M processed through an Inter-Governmental agreement; the submarine deal follows an earlier contract with Naval Group for six submarines manufactured by Mazagon Dockyard Shipbuilders Limited (MDL), Mumbai.
- France submitted a Letter of Acceptance for 26 Rafale-M jets, detailing pricing and other offer aspects.
- MDL submitted a commercial offer for three more Scorpenes to the Indian Navy.
- The Defence Ministry forms a costing committee for internal benchmarking of Scorpene deal value and the commercial offer from MDL would be opened after the internal benchmarking is complete.
- Defence Acquisition Council, chaired by Defence Minister Rajnath Singh, approved the Acceptance of Necessity (AoN) for 26 Rafale-M fighters and three additional Scorpene-class submarines on July 13.
- Procurement aims to fill the gap until the indigenous Twin Engine Deck-Based Fighter is inducted.
3. Centre approves deployment of CISF in Parliament complex
- Union Home Ministry approves deployment of CISF in Parliament complex after December 13 security breach.
- In-principle approval is given for the comprehensive deployment of CISF (Security Wing and Fire Wing) under Government Building Security (GBS) on a regular basis.
- Paramilitary forces are already deployed at other Central government buildings, airports, and Delhi Metro stations.
- Overall security in Parliament is administered by the Lok Sabha Secretariat.
- Parliament Duty Group (PDG), an armed component of CRPF, is deployed for armed intervention if needed.
- Parliament Security Service, under the Lok Sabha Speaker, holds overall responsibility for security.
- Decision aims to strengthen security protocols and prevent future breaches in the Parliament complex.
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to adjournment Sine Die:
- When the House is adjourned without naming a day for reassembly, it is called adjournment sine die.
- The power of adjournment sine die lies with the President of India.
- However, the presiding officer of a House can call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been adjourned or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die.
How many of these statements is/are correct?
- Any one
- Any two
- All three
- None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- Adjournment sine die means dismissing a sitting of Parliament for an unspecified period. In other words, when the House is suspended without naming a day for reassembly, it is known as adjournment sine die. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- The authority of adjournment sine die lies with the presiding officer of the House. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
- The presiding officer of a House can call a sitting of the House before the date or time to which it has been suspended, or at any time after the House has been adjourned sine die. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Q2. Consider the following statements with regards to XPoSat:
- It is India’s pioneering polarimetry mission aimed at studying various dynamics of astronomical sources in extreme conditions.
- It is only the world’s first polarimetry mission using X-Ray.
- XPoSat is a collaboration between the ISRO and the Raman Research Institute (RRI), Bengaluru, Karnataka.
How many of these statements is/are correct?
- Any one
- Any two
- All three
- None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- It is India’s first dedicated polarimetry mission to study various dynamics of bright astronomical X-ray sources in extreme conditions. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- India’s XPOSAT is not the inaugural X-ray polarimetry mission globally. Although it is India’s first dedicated mission of this kind, the distinction of being the “world’s first” belongs to NASA’s Imaging X-ray Polarimetry Explorer (IXPE), launched in December 2021. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
- XPoSat is a joint venture involving the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the Raman Research Institute (RRI). RRI, with assistance from various ISRO centres, developed the POLIX payload, which serves as the primary payload for XPoSat. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Q3. Consider the following statements with regards to the newly passed Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita bill, 2023:
- The offence of adultery, which was struck down by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional in 2018, has been omitted under the BNS.
- Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita does not protect men against rape.
- For adults, the offence of outraging the modesty of women (354A of the IPC) and voyeurism (354C) now have gender neutrality for the accused under the BNS, which means that women can also be booked under the law.
How many of these statements is/are correct?
- Any one
- Any two
- All three
- None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- The offence of adultery, which was struck down by the Supreme Court as unconstitutional in 2018, has been omitted under the BNS. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- As per the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, rape of an adult man will not be an offence. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- Under the BNS, both genders can now be charged with the offences of outraging the modesty of women (Section 354A of the IPC) and voyeurism (Section 354C), making the provisions gender-neutral for the accused. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to credit score:
- The credit score of an individual is based on their full loan history, which is stored in the database of a credit information company (CIC) which is registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
- There are four CICs, TransUnion CIBIL, Experian, Equifax, and CRIF High Mark, all of which are regulated by the RBI.Â
- They collect information from a variety of credit providers, including banks, credit card companies, and non-bank financial institutions, and rate borrowers on a scale of 300-900 with 900 being the highest rating.
How many of these statements is/are correct?
- Any one
- Any two
- All three
- None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- An individual’s credit score is determined by their complete loan history, archived in the database of a credit information company (CIC) registered with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- These CICs, namely TransUnion CIBIL, Experian, Equifax, and CRIF High Mark, operate under RBI regulation. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- They gather credit information from various sources, including banks and credit card companies, assessing borrowers on a 300-900 scale, with 900 being the highest rating. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
- Banks and lending institutions refer to this data when evaluating loan or credit card applications.
- To ensure accuracy, both CICs and banks are required to regularly update the credit information they collect.Â
- This system ensures a standardized and regulated approach to assessing creditworthiness, benefiting both lenders and borrowers in the financial ecosystem.
Q5. With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements:
- The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
- Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
- Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- Any one
- Any two
- All three
- None of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The word Stupa is mentioned in the Rigveda, Atharvaveda, Vajasaneyi Samhita, and Taittriya Samhita, in the Panchavimsata Brahmana. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
- Rigveda refers to a Stupa raised by King Varuna above the forest in a place having no foundation. The word ‘estuka’ is also used in the same sense in Rigveda, probably by then anything raised on the ground like a heap/pile might have been known as Stupa.
- The practice of preserving the remains of an important personality below accumulated earth was long in existence. Buddhist art adopted this practice and the structure built over such a site was known as Stupa Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The Buddhist texts like the Avadana Satakam, Mahavadana and Stupavadanam mention the commemorative aspects of the Stupa; even the Jaina literature like Raya Pasenaiya Sutta refers to it. Probably in the later period, due to the deep desire of the common mass to worship the lord for the sake of salvation, the Stupa acquired its votive character as well. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
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