19 Jul 2024: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

19 July 2024 CNA
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A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
SOCIAL JUSTICE
1. Vasco da Gama’s toxic legacy is now a ‘pandemic’ that kills 8 million globally
C. GS 3 Related
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. India and a case for strategic autonomy
ENVIRONMENT
1. The issue with tree planting schemes
F. Prelims Facts
1. How do Assam’s Foreigners Tribunals function?
2. ‘Smoothen administration of tax for the growth of capital markets’
G. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
H. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

C. GS 3 Related

Nothing here for today!!!

Syllabus: GS-2, Bilateral, Regional and Global Groupings and Agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests

Mains: India’s quest for Strategic autonomy

Introduction:

• On July 11, 2024, after Prime Minister Modi’s visit to Moscow, U.S. Ambassador Eric Garcetti stated that strategic autonomy is impractical during conflicts, emphasising the need for mutual understanding during crises.
• The Biden administration expressed concerns about Modi’s visit, especially as it coincided with a NATO summit, which reportedly disturbed the U.S. administration.

Stress Points and Historical Overview:

• Despite a steady strategic partnership between India and the U.S., recent stress points have emerged, particularly India’s stance on the Ukraine war.
• India maintained its strategic partnership with Russia, expanded energy cooperation, and refused to condemn the invasion, which the West viewed as support for Putin’s war.
• Ambassador Garcetti’s comment contradicts the principle of strategic autonomy, which involves making decisions based on national interests despite external pressures.

India’s Strategic Autonomy:

• India has consistently followed strategic autonomy since its Independence, adapting its foreign policy to serve its interests in a changing international system.
• Initially equidistant from both capitalist and communist blocs, India later strengthened ties with Moscow due to regional dynamics but retained strategic autonomy.
• Post-Cold War, India integrated more with the global economy and formed closer partnerships with the West while maintaining its independent stance.

Great Power Rivalry and Russia Policy:

• The global order is shifting, with the U.S. remaining powerful but facing competition from China and challenges from Russia.
• India aims to balance relationships with great powers without joining any alliance system, maintaining strategic autonomy as crucial.
• Energy ties with Russia are opportunistic, driven by cheap prices, while the defence partnership is structural, with a significant portion of India’s military equipment originating from Russia.

Positive-Sum Game Perspective:

• The U.S. should not view India’s strategic autonomy as unfriendly; India supports a multilateral global order and seeks a more representative international system.
• Strategic autonomy for India means greater engagement with various power centres based on informed national interest, viewing foreign policy as a positive-sum game where all parties can benefit.
• India’s energy trade with Russia helps stabilise global oil prices and its cooperation with Moscow can moderate Russia’s relationship with China, aligning with broader geopolitical interests.

Conclusion:

• India’s strategic autonomy reflects a nuanced foreign policy approach in a multipolar world, challenging the binary perspective of being either with or against a major power.
• This approach emphasizes India’s role in promoting a more balanced and representative global order.

Nut Graf: India’s commitment to strategic autonomy, despite U.S. concerns, underscores its pursuit of national interests amid shifting global dynamics. Balancing ties with Russia and the West, India seeks to maintain independent foreign policy choices in a multipolar world.

Category: ENVIRONMENT

1. The issue with tree planting schemes

F. Prelims Facts

1. How do Assam’s Foreigners Tribunals function?

Context: Assam’s Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) play a crucial role in identifying and dealing with illegal immigrants within the state. These quasi-judicial bodies have been the focus of significant attention due to their function, process, and the controversies surrounding their decisions.

Formation and Function of FTs

• Establishment: FTs were formed under the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order of 1964, which falls under Section 3 of the Foreigners’ Act of 1946. They were designed to allow local authorities to refer suspected foreigners to tribunals.
• Current Status: Exclusive to Assam, these tribunals are led by members who are judges, advocates, or civil servants with judicial experience. As of 2021, 300 FTs were reported in Assam, but only 100 are currently operational.

Role of the Border Police

• Historical Context: The Assam Police Border Organisation, established in 1962, evolved from the Prevention of Infiltration of Pakistani (PIP) scheme. Post-Bangladesh Liberation War, it was renamed the Prevention of Infiltration of Foreigners (PIF) scheme.
• Responsibilities: This wing is tasked with detecting and deporting illegal foreigners, patrolling the India-Bangladesh border, maintaining a second line of defense, and referring suspicious citizenship cases to FTs.

FT Procedures

• Legal Powers: FTs possess powers similar to civil courts, including summoning individuals, examining witnesses, and requiring document production.
• Process: A notice is served to the suspected foreigner, who has 10 days to respond and another 10 days to provide evidence. The FT must resolve the case within 60 days. Failure to prove citizenship can result in detention and deportation.

Controversies and Criticisms

• Supreme Court Judgment: On July 11, the Supreme Court criticized an FT order from 12 years ago that declared a deceased farmer, Rahim Ali, a foreigner. The Court highlighted the arbitrary nature of some FT decisions.
• Operational Issues: Cases have been mishandled, with some notices improperly served, leading to instances where individuals are unaware of cases against them. An FT member also criticized the process, suggesting it had become an industry focused on financial gain rather than justice.

Significance

Legal and Social Impact

• Citizenship and Rights: The functioning of FTs has a direct impact on the citizenship status and rights of individuals in Assam, influencing their access to resources and legal protections.
• Ethnic and Religious Implications: Decisions regarding citizenship often intersect with ethnic and religious identities, potentially exacerbating social tensions.

Government Policies

• Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) 2019: The Assam government, in alignment with the CAA, directed that cases involving non-Muslims who entered India illegally before 2014 should not be forwarded to FTs. This policy highlights the selective approach towards different religious communities.

2. ‘Smoothen administration of tax for the growth of capital markets’

Context: The capital markets in India are experiencing a remarkable transformation, with an unprecedented influx of retail investors and a significant rise in equity investments. This revolution is driven by digital advancements and regulatory initiatives that have made investing more accessible and cost-effective. This environment, combined with supportive policies, can propel India towards becoming a capital market hub for the subcontinent.

Retail Expansion and Digital Onboarding

• Growth in Demat Accounts: The number of demat accounts surged from 40 million in 2020 to 160 million, and projections indicate this could reach 300 million in the next three to four years.
• Impact of Digital Infrastructure: The seamless digital onboarding process, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic, enabled investors to open demat accounts quickly, resulting in a dramatic increase in new investors.
• Household Financial Savings: A significant portion of household savings is now being directed into the stock market, bolstering the capital available for investment.

SEBI’s Initiatives and Capital Formation

• Ease of Investment: SEBI’s initiatives focus on facilitating capital formation, ensuring low investment costs, and maximizing net returns for retail investors.
• Equity Investment Revolution: India is witnessing a surge in equity investments, with monthly inflows averaging ₹75,000 to ₹80,000 crore, leading to an annual influx of ₹9 to ₹10 lakh crore.

Entrepreneurial Opportunities

• Support for Entrepreneurs: The substantial equity investments are providing entrepreneurs with the necessary capital, fostering a conducive environment for startups and business ventures.
• Economic Growth: This influx of capital drives economic growth by enabling entrepreneurs to meet consumer demands and expand their ventures.

Structural Change and Long-term Impact

• Sustained Capital Inflow: The annual injection of ₹8 to ₹10 lakh crore represents a structural change, with long-term positive effects on the economy.
• Entrepreneurship Revolution: Proper management of this capital can lead to a significant boost in entrepreneurial activities and overall economic development.

Investment Flood Management

• Role of SEBI: SEBI is effectively managing the influx of investments, ensuring orderly money flow, and maintaining market stability.
• Government Policies: The government must craft policies that leverage this capital influx strategically, fostering an environment conducive to investment and growth.

Significance

Strategic Advantage

• Competitive Edge: A thriving capital market can provide India with a strategic advantage over global competitors, particularly China.
• Attracting Neighbouring Countries: Efficient and reliable capital markets can attract investments from smaller neighboring countries, positioning India as a capital market hub for the subcontinent.

Economic Transformation

• Boost to Economic Growth: The significant influx of capital into the markets can drive substantial economic growth, supporting infrastructure development, and creating job opportunities.
• Enhanced Investment Environment: Removing bureaucratic hurdles and ensuring smooth tax administration can enhance the investment environment, attracting more domestic and international investors.

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture? (PYQ 2020)

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 2, 3 and 4 only

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Fertigation involves mixing water-soluble fertilizers and delivering them through drip irrigation.
• Advantages of fertigation include:
  • Fertigation can synchronize nutrient supply and crop nutrient requirement.
  • Enhances water-use efficiency, nutrient-use efficiency, and yield.
  • Reduces nutrient losses via leaching, ammonia volatilization, denitrification and weed pressure.
• However, when an element forms a precipitate with another substance commonly found in irrigation water, it is not advisable to use this method.
  • Phosphorus and anhydrous ammonia may form a precipitate in water with high calcium and magnesium content. So they are not used in fertigation.

Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Q2. Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (PYQ 2021)

1. Catfish
2. Octopus
3. Oyster
4. Pelican

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Filter feeding, in zoology, is a form of food procurement in which food particles or small organisms are randomly strained from water.
• Oysters like other shellfish have unique filter-feeding ability, in the sense, they take in water through their gills, which then filters it for nutrients like suspended fragments of plankton, while automatically draining out the rest of the water.

Q3. Consider the following pairs: (PYQ 2022)

 Wetland/Lake:                             Location

1. Hokera Wetland                              Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland                              Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake                             Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta                                   Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

• The Hokersar is a wetland conservation area in Zainakote, near Srinagar city in the Kashmir Valley. It is the largest bird reserve in the Kashmir Valley.
• Renuka lake is the largest lake in Himachal Pradesh. This lake was named after the goddess Renuka and is designated as Ramsar site since November 2005.
• Rudrasagar Lake, also known as Rudijala, is a lake located in Melaghar, Tripura.
  • The lake is designated as a Ramsar site. A lowland sedimentation reservoir in the northeast hills, fed by three perennial streams discharging to the River Gomti.
• Sasthamkotta is the largest freshwater lake in Kerala.

Q4. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 
‘methane hydrate? (PYQ 2019)

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.​
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.​
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidises to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.​

Select the correct answer using the code given below.​

1. 1 and 2 only​
2. 2 and 3 only​
3. 1 and 3 only​
4. 1, 2 and 3​

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

• Statement 01 and 02 is correct, Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the sea floor as they have the temperature and pressure conditions suitable for the formation and stability of methane hydrate. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
  • Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. It is an “ice” that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and pressure conditions are favourable for its formation.
• Statement 03 is correct, Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidised to water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so, mainly by reaction with other trace gases.

Q5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following 
statements: (PYQ 2022)

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

• Statement 1 is correct, G20 Common Framework is the Common Framework for Debt Treatments beyond the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI). It is endorsed by the G20 members together with the Paris Club.
• Statement 2 is correct, It was announced in November 2020 to deal with the issue of unsustainable debts faced by Low-Income Countries countries.

I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

1. What is India’s plan to have its own space station and how will it benefit our space programme? [GS-3, Science & Technology] (PYQ 2019)
2. Why is there so much activity in the field of biotechnology in our country? How has this activity benefitted the field of biopharma? [GS-3, Science & Technology] (PYQ 2018)

Read the previous CNA here.