01 May 2023: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 01 May 2023:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
C. GS 3 Related
ENVIRONMENT
1. Stray dogs and poor waste management
2. The protests against the refinery project in Maharashtra
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. India, its SDG pledge goal, and the strategy to apply
SOCIAL JUSTICE
1. The erosion of hard-won labour rights
F. Prelims Facts
1. Shilabhattarika
G. Tidbits
1. India-Maldives
2. Periyar Tiger Reserve
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

2. The protests against the refinery project in Maharashtra

Syllabus: Environmental Pollution & Degradation

Mains: Need for careful planning and consideration of environmental and social impacts when undertaking large-scale industrial projects.

Context: Local protests against soil-testing surveys for Ratnagiri super refinery project along the coastal Konkan coast of Maharashtra.

Introduction:

  • Thousands of people have been protesting against the Ratnagiri super refinery project for the past two years as they are concerned about the potential impact on the environment and the livelihoods of local communities. 
  • On April 24, 2023, soil testing began in Barsu village in the coastal Ratnagiri district of Maharashtra to determine the site’s suitability for the proposed Ratnagiri Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited project.
  • An intense protest was organised against this from Barsu village, where the police resorted to mild caning and firing tear gas shells to disperse the crowd.

About Ratnagiri Project:

  • Ratnagiri Refinery and Petrochemicals Limited (RRPCL) is a joint venture company, formed on 22nd September 2017, by Indian Oil Corporation Limited (IOCL), Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited (BPCL) and Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL) with equity participation of 50:25:25. 
    • It proposes to implement an integrated refinery and petrochemicals complex in the West Coast of Maharashtra. It is considered to be the largest refinery complex in the world.
  • A memorandum of understanding (MoU) was signed between Saudi Aramco, IOCL, BPCL and HPCL for developing the oil refinery in April 2018.
  • Abu Dhabi National Oil Company (ADNOC) signed a framework agreement with the joint venture for the project’s development.
  • IOCL, BPCL and HPCL, along with Saudi Aramco and ADNOC will develop the refinery in a 50:50 partnership.
  • The $44bn project will have a processing output of 60 million metric tonnes per year (Mtpa) and is expected to be commissioned by 2023.
  • Besides fuels, the Project will also develop various downstream petrochemicals to meet India’s fast-growing fuels and petrochemicals demand.
  • As of April 2022, India’s oil refining capacity stood at 251.2 million metric tonnes per annum, making it the second-largest refiner in Asia and the fourth largest in the world.

Concerns raised by the locals:

  • The project site is in a region that is ecologically sensitive, with several species of flora and fauna endemic to the area. 
    • The Konkan region has large mango orchids as well as jack fruit and cashew plantations.
  • The villagers also expressed concern about the potential health hazards posed by the refinery and petrochemical unit, which is expected to emit a large amount of pollutants.
    • Konkan coast is home to a number of industries, including power plants, refineries, and chemical factories. These industries are known to emit high levels of pollutants such as sulphur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter into the air, which can have serious impacts on human health and the environment.
  • Many farmers expressed concern that they would lose their source of livelihood if their land is acquired for the project.

Government’s stand:

  • In November 2022, Maharashtra government started issuing land acquisition notices to residents of six villages to acquire the initial 2,220 acres of land. 
  • It has been a strong supporter of the project and argued that it would help reduce India’s dependence on crude oil imports and provide a boost to the economy, apart from generating employment for over one lakh people, both direct and indirect. 
  • Further, Saudi Aramco has been expressing concern about the delay in the project due to the unavailability of land which has become a cause of concern for both the Centre and State governments.
  • Recently, the Chief Minister stated that the project would not go ahead without the agreement of the local population.

Nut Graf: Ratnagiri super refinery project is facing a number of challenges and controversies, and there are concerns about its potential impact on the environment and local communities. The project highlights the need for careful planning and consideration of environmental and social impacts when undertaking large-scale industrial projects.

Category: SOCIAL JUSTICE

1. The erosion of hard-won labour rights

Syllabus: Welfare schemes for vulnerable sections of society.

Mains: Labour Rights

Prelims: International Labour Day.

Context: 1st May is observed as an International Labour Day.

Background Details:

  • Chicago (in the U.S.) became a major demonstration site for labour on 1st May 1886.
    • They were demanding an eight-hour workday.
    • The peaceful meeting turned violent on 4th May 1886. It became a symbol of the international struggle for workers’ rights.
  • The International Socialist Conference declared May 1 as an international holiday for labour, or May Day in 1889.
  • The Hours of Work (Industry) Convention was adopted by the International Labour Organization (ILO) in 1919. The convention limited the number of working hours to eight a day and 48 hours a week.

Working Hours Regulation:

  • The issue of regulating (specifically increasing) the working hours still persists. COVID-19 provided an opportunity for various states to amend the Factories Act, 1948. For instance, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu increased the number of working hours.
  • Employers, particularly from the garment and electronic industries are demanding flexible worktime regimes to focus on exports.
  • Indian economist follows the wrong approach of expanding exports at the cost of labour rights and human rights on the lines of Bangladesh and Vietnam.
    • As per the Global Right Index 2022, Bangladesh ranked among the 10 worst countries where labour rights are not guaranteed.
      • Global Right Index is released by International Trade Union Confederation (ITUC).
    • Similarly, Vietnam was ranked 4 indicating systematic violation of labour rights.

Associated Concerns:

  • Several regional governments provide many subsidies and exemptions to attract global and domestic capital in order to promote ‘ease of doing business’.
  • Employers demand no or weak labour unions in order to reap the maximum benefits from workers.
  • This approach leads to a race to the bottom where states amend labour laws despite the fact that it does not help in reducing unemployment.
  • There is also a demand for moving from a three-shift regime to a two-shift regime in order to enhance production, maximize workers’ time, and reduce travelling allowance and transaction costs.
  • Some workers have to travel two hours to reach their workplace. This along with 12 working hours will make it daunting for younger workers.
  • It should be noted that as the workers age they become highly fatigued, less efficient, and prone to industrial accidents.
  • Due to a lack of trade union cooperation and political unity, states can easily change the labour laws.
  • New labour codes have not yet been implemented, which is a major cause of concern.

Also read: Labour Reforms – Labour Codes Explained for UPSC Exam. Download PDF.

Related Link: 

Code on Wages Bill [2019]: Overview and Features for UPSC Exam

Nut Graf: Several states have extended the working hours of labour for promoting ease of doing business. It should be noted that by adopting such an approach, India is going back in time. Implementation of the new labour code is the need of the hour to maintain a work-life balance for workers/labours.

F. Prelims Facts

1. Shilabhattarika

Syllabus: GS01-Ancient History

Prelims: Sanskrit poetess; Badami Chalukyas

Context: Decipherment of inscriptions on copper plates shed new light on Shilabhattarika.

Key Details:

  • Researchers at the Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Pune claim to have shed new light on the ancient Sanskrit poetess Shilabhattarika, establishing her as the daughter of  Chalukyan emperor Pulakeshin II of Badami (610-642 CE).
    • Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute houses South Asia’s largest collection of manuscripts and rare texts.
  • This was achieved through the decoding of inscriptions on copper plates, which were found to contain a Sanskrit text with 65 lines inscribed in the late-Brahmi script.
    • The charter, which is believed to date back to the reign of the Badami Chalukya ruler Vijayaditya (696-733 CE), was held together by a copper ring featuring a varaha (boar) seal, which is a trademark of the Badami Chalukyas. 
  • The plates revealed that Vijayaditya, who ruled from 696-733 CE, had donated the village of Sikkatteru to a vedic scholar named Vishnu Sharma on the request of Mahendravarma, the son of Shilabhattarika.

Significance of this discovery:

  • This discovery marks a shift in the historiography of the Badami Chalukyas by placing Shilabhattarika as having lived in the 7th century CE, rather than the current theory which has her as the wife of the 8th century Rashtrakuta ruler Dhruva.
  • This gains significance as Shilabhattarika stood out as a poetess in the male-dominated field of classical Sanskrit literature in ancient India. 
  • Shilabhattarika was praised for her elegant and beautiful compositions by the Sanskrit poet-critic Rajashekhara, who lived in the 9th-10th century CE and was the court poet of the Gurjara-Pratiharas.
  • Noted Marathi poetess Shanta Shelke too has drawn inspiration from Shilabhattarika’s verses to compose one of her most iconic songs— toch chandrama nabhat (it is the same moon in the sky).

Read more on Chalukya Dynasty

G. Tidbits

1. India-Maldives

  • Defence minister of India Rajnath Singh is on a visit to the Maldives from May 1 to 3,2023 to hold talks with the top leadership of Maldives on various fronts.
  • In line with India’s commitment to capacity building of friendly countries and partners in the region, he is expected to hand over one fast patrol vessel and a landing craft to the Maldives National Defence Forces.
  • India’s decision to provide the military platforms to the Maldives came amid China’s persistent efforts to expand its overall influence in the region.
  • In recent years, India’s relationship with the Maldives, particularly in the areas of defence and security, has been improving, as the Maldives is an important maritime neighbour for India in the Indian Ocean region.
  • India’s vision of SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) along with its ‘Neighbourhood First’ policy as well as Maldives’ ‘India First’ policy seek to work together to jointly develop the capabilities within the Indian Ocean region.

Read more on India-Maldives Relations

2. Periyar Tiger Reserve

  • A wild elephant by the name of Arikomban which was causing chaos in the higher ranges of Idukki district was caught under mission Arikomban and shifted to Mullakkudy forest section of the Periyar Tiger Reserve.
  • Periyar National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary is a protected area located in the districts of Idukki and Pathanamthitta in Kerala. It is notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve.
  • The park is a repository of rare, endemic, and endangered flora and fauna and forms the major watershed of two important rivers of Kerala: the Periyar and the Pamba.
  • The park is located high in the Cardamom Hills and Pandalam Hills of the south Western Ghats along the border with Tamil Nadu.

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Which of the following are the correct nutritional requirements for mid day meal 
scheme under the National Food Security Act: (Level – Difficult) 
  1. Protein quantity should be 15-20 gms
  2. Fat quantity should be 18-21 gms
  3. Carbohydrates should be 70 gms

Choose the correct code:

  1. Only one statement is wrong
  2. Two statements are wrong
  3. All statements are wrong
  4. None of the statements is wrong
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation: 

  • 10 years after the National Food Security Act (NFSA) was enacted, the union government has revised the nutritional standards of meals at schools and anganwadis.
  • The revised nutritional standards have augmented the proportion of calories and protein, while also mandating the inclusion of micronutrients in them.
  • The amendment has been done on the recommendations of an inter-ministerial committee.
  • The guidelines for nutritional requirements in certain groups, like lower primary and upper primary classes, have been updated. Previously, students in lower primary classes were provided with 450 kilocalories (kcal) and 12 grams of protein for their midday meals.
  • Now, the protein quantity has been increased to 15-20 gms, while fat (18-21 gms) and carbohydrates (70 gms) are part of the mix as well.
  • Standards for micronutrients have also been fixed: calcium 170 mg, zinc 2 mg; iron 3.5 mg; dietary folate 50 micrograms, Vitamin A 100 micrograms; Vitamin B6 0.43 micrograms; Vitamin B12 0.66 micrograms.
Q2. Consider the following pairs:  (Level-Medium)

             Mission name                Country

  1. Ganga                                  Yemen
  2. Kaveri                                   Sudan
  3. Devi Shakti                           Ukraine

Which of these are matched incorrectly?

  1. 1 & 3 only
  2. 2 & 3 only
  3. 1 & 2 only
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation: 

  • Pair 01 is incorrectly matched, Operation Ganga was an evacuation mission carried out by the Indian government to rescue its citizens stranded in neighboring countries during the 2022 Russian invasion of Ukraine. 
  • Pair 02 is correctly matched, Operation Kaveri is a codename for India’s evacuation effort to bring back its citizens stranded in Sudan amid intense fighting between the army and a rival paramilitary force in April 2023.
  • Pair 03 is incorrectly matched,  Operation Devi Shakti was an operation of the Indian Armed Forces to evacuate Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Afghanistan after the collapse of the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan and the fall of Kabul to the Taliban.
Q3. Consider the following statements with regards to Shree Jagannath Puri temple:
(Level-Easy)
  1. Jagannath Puri temple is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to the Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath.
  2. This temple was called the “White Pagoda” and is a part of Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram).
  3. The temple is believed to be constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Western Ganga Dynasty.

Choose the correct statements:

  1. 1 & 2 only
  2. 2 & 3 only
  3. 1 & 3 only
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation: 

  • Statement 01 is correct, The Jagannath Temple is an important Hindu temple dedicated to Jagannath, a form of Vishnu.  It is called ‘Yamanika Tirtha’ where, according to the Hindu beliefs, the power of ‘Yama’, the god of death, has been nullified in Puri due to the presence of Lord Jagannath.
  • Statement 02 is correct, This temple was called the “White Pagoda” and is a part of Char Dham pilgrimages (Badrinath, Dwaraka, Puri, Rameswaram). 
    • The Puri temple is famous for its annual Ratha Yatra, or chariot festival, in which the three principal deities are pulled on huge and elaborately decorated temple cars. 
      • Unlike the stone and metal icons found in most Hindu temples, the image of Jagannath is made of wood and is ceremoniously replaced every twelve or 19 years by an exact replica.
  • Statement 03 is incorrect, The temple is believed to have been constructed in the 12th century by King Anatavarman Chodaganga Deva of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty.
Q4. Which of the following statements is incorrect about Telecom Regulatory Authority
of India (TRAI)? (Level-Difficult)
  1. The TRAI consists of a Chairperson, two whole-time members and two part-time members, all of which are appointed by the Government of India.
  2. The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established on 20th February, 1997 as an executive agency.
  3. The recommendations of the TRAI are not binding upon the Central Government.
  4. The TRAI Act was amended in 2000 which established a Telecommunications Dispute Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) to take over the adjudicatory and disputes functions from TRAI.
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation: The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) was established on 20th February, 1997 by the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997.

Q5. Consider the following pairs Town sometime mentioned in news: (Level-Moderate)
(PYQ-CSE-2018)

         Country                            Places

  1. Aleppo                               Syria
  2. Kirkuk                               Yemen
  3. Mosul                               Palestine
  4. Mazar -i- Sharif              Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 4
  3. 2 and3
  4. 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:  

  • Mosul & Kirkuk are both in Iraq. Been in news due to ISIS controlled territory.

Read the previous CNA here.

CNA 01 May 2023:- Download PDF Here

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