UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Jun 01 – Jun 07 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Current Affairs Monthly Magazine (Apr 2024)
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UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jun 01 – Jun 07 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
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UPSC 2024: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jun 01 – Jun 07
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)
National Waterway no. River System
- NW 16 BARAK RIVER
- NW 64 MAHANANDA RIVER
- NW 98 SUTLEJ RIVER
- NW 110 YAMUNA RIVER
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
Correct
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Barak River is the second largest river in the North Eastern Region. It originates from south of Kohima in Nagaland near Nagaland – Manipur Border. After traversing through Nagaland, Manipur and Assam, it splits at Bhanga into two streams called Surma and Kushiyara.
- These two streams rejoin at Markuli in Bangladesh and thereafter the river is called Meghna.
- The navigable portion of Barak River in India is the 121 km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga which has been declared as NW-16 in the year 2016.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The 425 km stretch of Mahanadi from Paradip sea mouth to Sambalpur has been declared as National Waterway-64 by Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI).
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Sutlej river stretch passing through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab is declared as National Waterway 98.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, Yamuna river stretch passing through Delhi,Haryana and Uttar Pradesh is declared as National Waterway 98.
Incorrect
- Pair 01 is correctly matched, Barak River is the second largest river in the North Eastern Region. It originates from south of Kohima in Nagaland near Nagaland – Manipur Border. After traversing through Nagaland, Manipur and Assam, it splits at Bhanga into two streams called Surma and Kushiyara.
- These two streams rejoin at Markuli in Bangladesh and thereafter the river is called Meghna.
- The navigable portion of Barak River in India is the 121 km stretch between Lakhipur and Bhanga which has been declared as NW-16 in the year 2016.
- Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The 425 km stretch of Mahanadi from Paradip sea mouth to Sambalpur has been declared as National Waterway-64 by Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI).
- Pair 03 is correctly matched, Sutlej river stretch passing through Himachal Pradesh and Punjab is declared as National Waterway 98.
- Pair 04 is correctly matched, Yamuna river stretch passing through Delhi,Haryana and Uttar Pradesh is declared as National Waterway 98.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements: (Level-Medium)
- Lavenders flourish best in dry, well-drained, sandy or gravelly soils in full sun
- Commercially, the plant is grown mainly for the production of lavender essential oil.
- Aroma Mission was launched by the Union Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare through the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR), which has led to the well-known “Purple Revolution” in India.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- The Purple or Lavender Revolution was launched in 2016 by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology through the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) Aroma Mission.
Incorrect
- The Purple or Lavender Revolution was launched in 2016 by the Union Ministry of Science & Technology through the Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) Aroma Mission.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to Commission of Enquiry Act, 1952, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Difficult)
- This Act is made for the appointment of commissions to inquire into matters which are related or concerned or affects the public at large.
- Both central and state governments can set up such Commissions of Inquiry and they can appoint such commissions to investigate any subject matter mentioned in the 7th schedule.
- If the State government set up the commission first, then Central Govt cannot set up a parallel commission on the same subject matter
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Parliament enacted the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952, which authorises the union and state governments to appoint inquiry commissions to make inquiries in the definite matters of public importance. This is a central legislation enacted under the constitution, Schedule VII, List I and III.
- Statement 02 is correct,Both central and state governments can set up such Commissions of Inquiry, states are restricted by subject matters that they are empowered to legislate upon.
- Statement 03 is correct, If the central government set up the commission first, then states cannot set up a parallel commission on the same subject matter without the approval of the Centre.
- But if a state has appointed a Commission, then the Centre can appoint another on the same subject if it is of the opinion that the scope of the inquiry should be extended to two or more states.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Parliament enacted the Commissions of Inquiry Act, 1952, which authorises the union and state governments to appoint inquiry commissions to make inquiries in the definite matters of public importance. This is a central legislation enacted under the constitution, Schedule VII, List I and III.
- Statement 02 is correct,Both central and state governments can set up such Commissions of Inquiry, states are restricted by subject matters that they are empowered to legislate upon.
- Statement 03 is correct, If the central government set up the commission first, then states cannot set up a parallel commission on the same subject matter without the approval of the Centre.
- But if a state has appointed a Commission, then the Centre can appoint another on the same subject if it is of the opinion that the scope of the inquiry should be extended to two or more states.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhich of the following statements is correct about Superbugs? (Level-Medium)
Correct
Superbugs are strains of bacteria, viruses, parasites and fungi that are resistant to most of the antibiotics and other medications commonly used to treat the infections they cause. A few examples of superbugs include resistant bacteria that can cause pneumonia, urinary tract infections and skin infections.
Incorrect
Superbugs are strains of bacteria, viruses, parasites and fungi that are resistant to most of the antibiotics and other medications commonly used to treat the infections they cause. A few examples of superbugs include resistant bacteria that can cause pneumonia, urinary tract infections and skin infections.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyAspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?(Level-Difficult) (PYQ-CSE-2011)
Correct
Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.
- Aspartame is metabolised by the body into two constituent amino acids and methanol. These hydrolysis products are handled by the body in the same way as aspartic acid, L-Phenylalanine and methanol from other consumed foods. It contains calories, but consumers will likely use less than they would of table sugar because it is about 200 times sweeter.
- Aspartame is not heat stable and loses its sweetness when heated, so it typically isn’t used in baked goods.
Incorrect
Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation.
- Aspartame is metabolised by the body into two constituent amino acids and methanol. These hydrolysis products are handled by the body in the same way as aspartic acid, L-Phenylalanine and methanol from other consumed foods. It contains calories, but consumers will likely use less than they would of table sugar because it is about 200 times sweeter.
- Aspartame is not heat stable and loses its sweetness when heated, so it typically isn’t used in baked goods.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: G KConsider the following statements regarding World Environment Day (WED): (Level- Difficult)
- It has been celebrated since 1973 under the aegis of UNEP
- For 2023, the theme is “Solutions to Plastic Pollution”, and it is being hosted by Cote d’Ivoire
- India has been the host of World Environment Day twice
How many of the above are true?
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: In 1973, the first WED was held with the theme “Only One Earth”.
- Statement 2 is correct: For 2023, the theme is “Solutions to Plastic Pollution”, and it is being hosted by Cote d’Ivoire.
- Statement 3 is correct: India has been the host of World Environment Day twice in 2011 and 2018.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: In 1973, the first WED was held with the theme “Only One Earth”.
- Statement 2 is correct: For 2023, the theme is “Solutions to Plastic Pollution”, and it is being hosted by Cote d’Ivoire.
- Statement 3 is correct: India has been the host of World Environment Day twice in 2011 and 2018.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: Current AffairsProject 75 I is related to which of the following? (Level- Easy)
Correct
- Project-75 (I) envisages the indigenous construction of six modern conventional submarines with contemporary equipment, weapons & sensors.
Incorrect
- Project-75 (I) envisages the indigenous construction of six modern conventional submarines with contemporary equipment, weapons & sensors.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: International RelationsHow many of the following statements are true regarding India Africa Forum Summit? (Level- Moderate)
- It was first held in the year 2008.
- The 3rd summit did away with the Banjul Formula of inviting the heads of state.
- The 4th Summit is to be held in Africa in 2023.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: It was first held from April 4 to April 8, 2008, in New Delhi, India.
- Statement 2 is correct: The 3rd summit did away with the Banjul Formula of inviting the heads of state.
- Statement 3 is not correct: The 4th summit is not yet scheduled.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: It was first held from April 4 to April 8, 2008, in New Delhi, India.
- Statement 2 is correct: The 3rd summit did away with the Banjul Formula of inviting the heads of state.
- Statement 3 is not correct: The 4th summit is not yet scheduled.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyHow many of the following statements are correct? (Level- Difficult)
- mRNA vaccines lead to the production of foreign proteins in our bodies, triggering our immune response.
- The first human trial of an mRNA vaccine was done for Rabies.
- India’s first mRNA vaccine was developed for Covid-19.
- India’s mRNA vaccine for Covid-19 was the first such mRNA vaccine against the disease.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: The mRNA (messenger RNA) is one such vaccine that injects pieces of mRNA into human cells in order to get them to produce pathogen antigens.
- Statement 2 is not correct: The first human trial of an mRNA vaccine was done for a tumour.
- Statement 3 is correct: The country’s first home-grown mRNA Covid-19 vaccine is GEMCOVAC-19.
- Statement 4 is correct: It was the first such mRNA vaccine against the Covid-19 disease.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: The mRNA (messenger RNA) is one such vaccine that injects pieces of mRNA into human cells in order to get them to produce pathogen antigens.
- Statement 2 is not correct: The first human trial of an mRNA vaccine was done for a tumour.
- Statement 3 is correct: The country’s first home-grown mRNA Covid-19 vaccine is GEMCOVAC-19.
- Statement 4 is correct: It was the first such mRNA vaccine against the Covid-19 disease.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following techniques/phenomena: (Level- Difficult)
- Budding and grafting in fruit plants
- Cytoplasmic male sterility
- Gene silencing
Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?
Correct
- Grafting and budding are horticultural techniques used to join parts from two or more plants so that they appear to grow as a single plant.
- Cytoplasmic male sterility is total or partial male sterility in hermaphrodite organisms, as the result of specific nuclear and mitochondrial interactions.
- Gene silencing is the regulation of gene expression in a cell to prevent the expression of a certain gene.
Incorrect
- Grafting and budding are horticultural techniques used to join parts from two or more plants so that they appear to grow as a single plant.
- Cytoplasmic male sterility is total or partial male sterility in hermaphrodite organisms, as the result of specific nuclear and mitochondrial interactions.
- Gene silencing is the regulation of gene expression in a cell to prevent the expression of a certain gene.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: G KHow many of the following statements are true regarding Suriname? (Level- Difficult)
- It is located in the northern part of South America.
- It was a Dutch colony before getting independence in 1975.
- Indian-origin people make up the largest ethnic group in Suriname.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is correct: It is a small country located in the Northern part of South America.
- Statement 2 is correct: It was a Dutch colony before getting independence in 1975.
- Statement 3 is correct: Indian-origin people make up the largest ethnic group in Suriname.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is correct: It is a small country located in the Northern part of South America.
- Statement 2 is correct: It was a Dutch colony before getting independence in 1975.
- Statement 3 is correct: Indian-origin people make up the largest ethnic group in Suriname.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: GeographyHow many of the following statements are true regarding the Indian Monsoons? (Level- Moderate)
- The shift of the ITCZ is a major factor in bringing the Southwest monsoons to India.
- The Tamil Nadu coast remains dry during the Southwest monsoon season.
- Monsoon enters West Bengal and Bangladesh not from the southwest but from south and southeast directions.
Options:
Correct
Statement 1 is correct: The shift of the ITCZ is a major factor in bringing the Southwest monsoons to India.
Statement 2 is correct: During the South-West Monsoons, Tamil Nadu remains dry because it is located in a rain shadow area. It receives rainfall in the winter season due to northeast trade winds.
Statement 3 is correct: Monsoon enters West Bengal and Bangladesh not from the southwest but from south and southeast directions.Incorrect
Statement 1 is correct: The shift of the ITCZ is a major factor in bringing the Southwest monsoons to India.
Statement 2 is correct: During the South-West Monsoons, Tamil Nadu remains dry because it is located in a rain shadow area. It receives rainfall in the winter season due to northeast trade winds.
Statement 3 is correct: Monsoon enters West Bengal and Bangladesh not from the southwest but from south and southeast directions. -
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: PolitySection 124A was inserted into the Indian Penal Code during the reign of which Viceroy? (Level- Easy)
Correct
Section 124A was inserted into the Indian Penal Code during the reign of Lord Mayo. In 1870 it was added to the Penal Code by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen.
Incorrect
Section 124A was inserted into the Indian Penal Code during the reign of Lord Mayo. In 1870 it was added to the Penal Code by an amendment introduced by Sir James Stephen.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: PolityHow many of the following statements are true regarding the Commission of Railway Safety? (Level - Moderate)
- It comes under the administrative control of the Ministry of Railways.
- It is headquartered in Lucknow.
- This authority is responsible for investigating serious train accidents in the country.
Options:
Correct
- Statement 1 is not correct: The Commission of Railway Safety works Under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
- Statement 2 is correct: It has its headquarters in Lucknow.
- Statement 3 is correct: It investigates serious train accidents in the country.
Incorrect
- Statement 1 is not correct: The Commission of Railway Safety works Under the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
- Statement 2 is correct: It has its headquarters in Lucknow.
- Statement 3 is correct: It investigates serious train accidents in the country.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following: (Level- Difficult)
- Calcutta Unitarian Committee
- Tabernacle of New Dispensation
- Indian Reform Association
Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?
Correct
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
- In 1868, Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
- He was also a part of the Indian Reform Association, whose objective was to create public opinion against child marriage.
Incorrect
- The Calcutta Unitarian Committee was established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.
- In 1868, Keshab Chandra Sen laid the foundation stone of his mandir called the Tabernacle of New Dispensation.
- He was also a part of the Indian Reform Association, whose objective was to create public opinion against child marriage.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements about Minimum Support Price: (Level-Medium)
- The Minimum Support Price is recommended by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
- It is the minimum price at which the government buys the crops from the farmers.
- The system of MSP was first introduced in India in 1966-67.
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
Correct
- The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs. It is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Read more on Minimum Support Price.
Incorrect
- The Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs. It is approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Read more on Minimum Support Price.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyHow many of the following gases are greenhouse gases? (Level-Easy)
- Methane
- Nitrogen
- Water Vapour
- Argon
- Carbon Dioxide
Options:
Correct
The Primary GHGs are Water Vapour, Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide and Ozone. Other GHGs are carbon monoxide, fluorinated gases, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), black carbon (soot), and brown carbon. Read more on Greenhouse Gases.
Incorrect
The Primary GHGs are Water Vapour, Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide and Ozone. Other GHGs are carbon monoxide, fluorinated gases, chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), black carbon (soot), and brown carbon. Read more on Greenhouse Gases.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: AgricultureHow many of the following statements are correct about cotton cultivation? (Level-Medium)
- It is a Kharif crop.
- India is one of the top 5 producers of cotton globally.
- Bt Cotton was introduced in India in 2002.
Options:
Correct
Cotton is a kharif crop which is cultivated during the rainy season. India is the largest cotton producer in the world with 6,188,000 tonnes production volume per year. China comes second with 6,178,318 tonnes of yearly production.
- Bt cotton was first approved for field trials in the United States in 1993 and first approved for commercial use in the United States in 1995. Bt cotton was approved by the Chinese government in 1997.
- In 2002, a joint venture between Monsanto and Mahyco introduced Bt cotton to India.
Incorrect
Cotton is a kharif crop which is cultivated during the rainy season. India is the largest cotton producer in the world with 6,188,000 tonnes production volume per year. China comes second with 6,178,318 tonnes of yearly production.
- Bt cotton was first approved for field trials in the United States in 1993 and first approved for commercial use in the United States in 1995. Bt cotton was approved by the Chinese government in 1997.
- In 2002, a joint venture between Monsanto and Mahyco introduced Bt cotton to India.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following statements are true regarding the Madden Julian Oscillation? (Level-Difficult)
- It is an Eastward moving system near the equator.
- It has a periodicity of 30-60 days.
- Its presence over the Indian Ocean during monsoons helps bring good rainfall over the Indian Subcontinent.
Options:
Correct
Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO) is an oceanic-atmospheric phenomenon which affects weather activities across the globe. It brings major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to monthly timescales.
- The MJO is characterised as a pulsating disturbance moving eastward near the equator, consisting of clouds, rainfall, winds, and pressure.
- It has a regular cycle of occurrence every 30 to 60 days.
- The MJO follows a path comprising eight distinct phases as it progresses through its journey.
- During the Monsoon season, when the MJO reaches the Indian Ocean, it brings substantial rainfall to the Indian subcontinent.
Incorrect
Madden Julian Oscillation (MJO) is an oceanic-atmospheric phenomenon which affects weather activities across the globe. It brings major fluctuation in tropical weather on weekly to monthly timescales.
- The MJO is characterised as a pulsating disturbance moving eastward near the equator, consisting of clouds, rainfall, winds, and pressure.
- It has a regular cycle of occurrence every 30 to 60 days.
- The MJO follows a path comprising eight distinct phases as it progresses through its journey.
- During the Monsoon season, when the MJO reaches the Indian Ocean, it brings substantial rainfall to the Indian subcontinent.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: EconomyThe money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? (Level-Medium) (PYQ-CSE-2019)
Correct
The money multiplier represents the total money generated by commercial banks based on a fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio.
- When the cash reserve ratio is raised, it limits the ability of banks to lend money, resulting in a decrease in the money multiplier.
- A rise in the population’s banking activity fosters increased lending, leading to higher deposits in the banking system and consequently elevating the money multiplier.
- The money multiplier in an economy does not automatically increase with population growth, highlighting that population size alone does not determine changes in the money multiplier.
Incorrect
The money multiplier represents the total money generated by commercial banks based on a fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio.
- When the cash reserve ratio is raised, it limits the ability of banks to lend money, resulting in a decrease in the money multiplier.
- A rise in the population’s banking activity fosters increased lending, leading to higher deposits in the banking system and consequently elevating the money multiplier.
- The money multiplier in an economy does not automatically increase with population growth, highlighting that population size alone does not determine changes in the money multiplier.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: EconomyHow many of the following statements are true? (Level-Easy)
- The Pumped Storage projects are often developed in conjunction with hydel power projects.
- It is a form of renewable energy.
- They use surplus energy during low-demand times in order to fulfil the demand during peak hours.
Options:
Correct
- Pumped storage hydropower (PSH) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage. It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine. The system also requires power as it pumps water back into the upper reservoir (recharge).
- Pumped-storage hydroelectricity allows energy from intermittent sources (such as solar, wind) and other renewables, or excess electricity from continuous base-load sources (such as coal or nuclear) to be saved for periods of higher demand.
Incorrect
- Pumped storage hydropower (PSH) is a type of hydroelectric energy storage. It is a configuration of two water reservoirs at different elevations that can generate power as water moves down from one to the other (discharge), passing through a turbine. The system also requires power as it pumps water back into the upper reservoir (recharge).
- Pumped-storage hydroelectricity allows energy from intermittent sources (such as solar, wind) and other renewables, or excess electricity from continuous base-load sources (such as coal or nuclear) to be saved for periods of higher demand.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: EconomyHow many of the following pairs are correctly matched? (Level-Medium)
- Repo Rate: the rate at which commercial banks give out loans
- Reverse Repo Rate: the rate at which commercial banks take loans from the RBI
- Statutory Liquidity Ratio: Minimum % of deposits to be maintained by commercial banks as liquid assets
Options:
Correct
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Repo stands for “Re Purchase Option”. Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to other banks by buying the securities with an agreement that the bank will buy back on a certain date.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, The reverse repo rate is the rate of interest that is provided by the Reserve Bank of India while borrowing money from commercial banks.
- Statement 03 is correct, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank must keep in liquid cash, gold, or other securities.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is incorrect, Repo stands for “Re Purchase Option”. Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends to other banks by buying the securities with an agreement that the bank will buy back on a certain date.
- Statement 02 is incorrect, The reverse repo rate is the rate of interest that is provided by the Reserve Bank of India while borrowing money from commercial banks.
- Statement 03 is correct, Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank must keep in liquid cash, gold, or other securities.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: HistoryHow many of the following pairs of the monument and the ruler by whom it was constructed are correctly matched? (Level-Medium)
- Siri Fort: Allauddin Khilji
- Jantar Mantar: Maharaja Jai Singh II
- Konark Sun Temple: Narasimhadeva I
- Qutub Minar: Iltutmish
Options:
Correct
- Among the six rulers of the Khilji dynasty, Alauddin Khilji laid the foundation of his capital Siri in 1303 A.D.
- A Jantar Mantar is an assembly of stone-built astronomical instruments, designed to be used with the naked eye. There were five Jantar Mantars in India (Jaipur, Delhi, Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi), all of them built at the command of Maharaja Jai Singh II.
- Konark Sun Temple is a 13th-century (year 1250) temple in Odisha. The temple is attributed to King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty about 1250 CE.
- Qutbu’d-Din Aibak laid the foundation of Qutub Minar in 1199 AD and raised the first storey, to which were added three more storeys by his successor and son-in-law, Shamsu’d-Din Iltutmish (AD 1211-36).
Incorrect
- Among the six rulers of the Khilji dynasty, Alauddin Khilji laid the foundation of his capital Siri in 1303 A.D.
- A Jantar Mantar is an assembly of stone-built astronomical instruments, designed to be used with the naked eye. There were five Jantar Mantars in India (Jaipur, Delhi, Ujjain, Mathura, and Varanasi), all of them built at the command of Maharaja Jai Singh II.
- Konark Sun Temple is a 13th-century (year 1250) temple in Odisha. The temple is attributed to King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga dynasty about 1250 CE.
- Qutbu’d-Din Aibak laid the foundation of Qutub Minar in 1199 AD and raised the first storey, to which were added three more storeys by his successor and son-in-law, Shamsu’d-Din Iltutmish (AD 1211-36).
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following statements are true? (Level-Easy)
- IMD is designated as a Regional Specialized Meteorological Centre for 13 nations.
- The naming of the cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region started in 2004.
Options:
Correct
- Worldwide there are six regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and five regional Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs) mandated for issuing advisories and naming of tropical cyclones.
- India Meteorological Department is one of the six RSMCs to provide tropical cyclone and storm surge advisories to 13 member countries under the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia-Pacific (ESCAP) Panel.
- The 2004 North Indian Ocean cyclone season was the first in which tropical cyclones were officially named in the basin.
- Cyclone Onil, which struck India and Pakistan, was named in late September.
Incorrect
- Worldwide there are six regional specialised meteorological centres (RSMCs) and five regional Tropical Cyclone Warning Centres (TCWCs) mandated for issuing advisories and naming of tropical cyclones.
- India Meteorological Department is one of the six RSMCs to provide tropical cyclone and storm surge advisories to 13 member countries under the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia-Pacific (ESCAP) Panel.
- The 2004 North Indian Ocean cyclone season was the first in which tropical cyclones were officially named in the basin.
- Cyclone Onil, which struck India and Pakistan, was named in late September.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat is the use of Biochar in farming? (Level-Difficult) (PYQ-CSE-2020)
- Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
- When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
- When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the medium to retain water for a longer time.
Which of the above-given statements is/are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, Biochar is created by subjecting biomass to high temperatures without the presence of oxygen. Utilising biochar in vertical farming has the potential to greatly enhance crop yields.
- Statement 02 is correct, Biochar holds promise in enhancing the inherent nitrogen fixation capability of legumes within the soil. It provides a favourable environment for nitrogen-fixing microorganisms, thereby promoting their survival and activity.
- Statement 03 is correct, Because of its porous nature, biochar can improve soil’s water retention. Thereby plants will have more water available to them for a longer period of time.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, Biochar is created by subjecting biomass to high temperatures without the presence of oxygen. Utilising biochar in vertical farming has the potential to greatly enhance crop yields.
- Statement 02 is correct, Biochar holds promise in enhancing the inherent nitrogen fixation capability of legumes within the soil. It provides a favourable environment for nitrogen-fixing microorganisms, thereby promoting their survival and activity.
- Statement 03 is correct, Because of its porous nature, biochar can improve soil’s water retention. Thereby plants will have more water available to them for a longer period of time.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements with respect to Governor: (Level-Medium)
- With regard to Money bills, he may give his assent to the bill, he may withhold his assent and he may return the bill for reconsideration of the house.
- He cannot pardon a death sentence.
- He can nominate one member to the state legislative assembly from the Anglo-Indian community.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- The Governor cannot return a money bill to the state legislature for reconsideration.
- Article 331 and Article 333 of the Indian Constitution allowed for the nomination of two Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Legislature, respectively, but that was done away with through the 104th Amendment Act.
Incorrect
- The Governor cannot return a money bill to the state legislature for reconsideration.
- Article 331 and Article 333 of the Indian Constitution allowed for the nomination of two Anglo-Indians to the Lok Sabha and State Legislature, respectively, but that was done away with through the 104th Amendment Act.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: PolityWith respect to the State Election Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (Level-Easy)
- It consists of a State Election commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
- He shall not be removed from office except in the manner and on the grounds prescribed for the removal of a judge of the State High Court.
Options:
Correct
- Article 243K(1) of the Constitution states that the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats (Municipalities under Article 243ZA) shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
- Article 243K(2) states that the tenure and appointment will be directed as per the law made by the state legislature. However, the State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his/her office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
Incorrect
- Article 243K(1) of the Constitution states that the superintendence, direction and control of the preparation of electoral rolls for, and the conduct of, all elections to the Panchayats (Municipalities under Article 243ZA) shall be vested in a State Election Commission consisting of a State Election Commissioner to be appointed by the Governor.
- Article 243K(2) states that the tenure and appointment will be directed as per the law made by the state legislature. However, the State Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his/her office except in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: GeographyConsider the following statements: (Level-Difficult)
- El Niño typically favours stronger hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and suppresses it in the Atlantic basin.
- El Niño and La Niña affect both the ocean and the atmosphere.
- La Niña refers to a band of warmer water spreading from west to east in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Correct
- Statement 01 is correct, El Niño favours stronger hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and suppresses it in the Atlantic basin. Conversely, La Niña suppresses hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and enhances it in the Atlantic basin.
- Statement 02 is correct, El Niño and La Niña produce important consequences for people and ecosystems across the globe. The interactions between the ocean and atmosphere alter weather around the world and can result in severe storms or mild weather, drought or flooding.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, La Niña occurs when the band of water spreads east to west and is cooler.
Read more on El Nino and La Nina.
Incorrect
- Statement 01 is correct, El Niño favours stronger hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and suppresses it in the Atlantic basin. Conversely, La Niña suppresses hurricane activity in the central and eastern Pacific basins, and enhances it in the Atlantic basin.
- Statement 02 is correct, El Niño and La Niña produce important consequences for people and ecosystems across the globe. The interactions between the ocean and atmosphere alter weather around the world and can result in severe storms or mild weather, drought or flooding.
- Statement 03 is incorrect, La Niña occurs when the band of water spreads east to west and is cooler.
Read more on El Nino and La Nina.
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: AgricultureMinimum Support Price (MSP) is given to which of the following crops? (Level-Medium)
- Paddy
- Groundnut
- Raw Jute
- Sunflower Seed
- Ragi
Options:
Correct
- Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane.
- The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.
- In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra, respectively. The list of crops are as follows.
- Paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad, lentil, groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and niger seed
- Raw cotton, Raw jute, Copra, De-husked coconut, Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price), Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco.
Incorrect
- Government announces minimum support prices (MSPs) for 22 mandated crops and fair and remunerative prices (FRP) for sugarcane.
- The mandated crops are 14 crops of the kharif season, 6 rabi crops and two other commercial crops.
- In addition, the MSPs of toria and de-husked coconut are fixed on the basis of the MSPs of rapeseed/mustard and copra, respectively. The list of crops are as follows.
- Paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad, lentil, groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and niger seed
- Raw cotton, Raw jute, Copra, De-husked coconut, Sugarcane (Fair and remunerative price), Virginia flu cured (VFC) tobacco.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyWhat is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices? (Level-Difficult) (PYQ-CSE-2011)
Correct
- Bluetooth works by using radio frequencies, rather than the infrared spectrum used by traditional remote controls. As a result, Bluetooth eliminates the need not only for a wired connection but also for maintaining a clear line of sight to communicate between devices.
- The communication distance of Bluetooth is around 10 m or less, whereas the communication distance of Wi-Fi is several hundred metres. Both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi technology do not need a direct line of sight for information transmission.
Incorrect
- Bluetooth works by using radio frequencies, rather than the infrared spectrum used by traditional remote controls. As a result, Bluetooth eliminates the need not only for a wired connection but also for maintaining a clear line of sight to communicate between devices.
- The communication distance of Bluetooth is around 10 m or less, whereas the communication distance of Wi-Fi is several hundred metres. Both Bluetooth and Wi-Fi technology do not need a direct line of sight for information transmission.
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