UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Apr 02 – Apr 08 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Apr 02 – Apr 08 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.
Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.
Post your scores in the comment section below!
UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Apr 02 - Apr 08
Quiz-summary
0 of 30 questions completed
Questions:
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
Information
UPSC 2022: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Apr 02 – Apr 08
You have already completed the quiz before. Hence you can not start it again.
Quiz is loading...
You must sign in or sign up to start the quiz.
You have to finish following quiz, to start this quiz:
Results
0 of 30 questions answered correctly
Your time:
Time has elapsed
You have reached 0 of 0 points, (0)
Average score |
|
Your score |
|
Categories
- Agriculture 0%
- Current Affairs 0%
- Economy 0%
- Environment and Ecology 0%
- G K 0%
- Geography 0%
- Health 0%
- History 0%
- International Relations 0%
- Polity 0%
- Schemes 0%
- Science and Technology 0%
- 1
- 2
- 3
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 7
- 8
- 9
- 10
- 11
- 12
- 13
- 14
- 15
- 16
- 17
- 18
- 19
- 20
- 21
- 22
- 23
- 24
- 25
- 26
- 27
- 28
- 29
- 30
- Answered
- Review
-
Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Category: International RelationsFast patrol vessel PS Zoroaster was gifted by India to which country?
Correct
The Fast Patrol Vessel named PS Zoroaster is the fourth ship to be gifted by India to Seychelles.
The other vessels gifted by India include PS Topaz (2005), PS Constant (2014), Patrol Boat Hermes (2016).Incorrect
The Fast Patrol Vessel named PS Zoroaster is the fourth ship to be gifted by India to Seychelles.
The other vessels gifted by India include PS Topaz (2005), PS Constant (2014), Patrol Boat Hermes (2016). -
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements with respect to African Swine Fever:
- It is a respiratory disease that infects domestic and wild pigs.
- It is caused by Type A influenza virus.
- It does not affect humans and spreads from animals to other animals only.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
African Swine Fever (ASF) is different from swine flu. The virus does not affect people and there is no impact on human health.
It is a respiratory disease of pigs, which is caused by Type A influenza virus.
ASF is a severe viral disease that affects wild and domestic pigs typically resulting in an acute haemorrhagic fever.
ASF is caused by a large DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family.Incorrect
African Swine Fever (ASF) is different from swine flu. The virus does not affect people and there is no impact on human health.
It is a respiratory disease of pigs, which is caused by Type A influenza virus.
ASF is a severe viral disease that affects wild and domestic pigs typically resulting in an acute haemorrhagic fever.
ASF is caused by a large DNA virus of the Asfarviridae family. -
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements:
- G-Secs are tax-free debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money.
- Treasury bills are short term instruments issued by the central government only.
- Dated securities are long-term instruments having maturity between 5 years and 40 years.
Which of the given statement is/are correct?
Correct
- G-Secs are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money.
- Like bank fixed deposits, g-secs are not tax-free.
- Treasury bills are short term instruments issued by the central government only.
- Dated securities are long-term instruments having maturity between 5 years and 40 years.
Incorrect
- G-Secs are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money.
- Like bank fixed deposits, g-secs are not tax-free.
- Treasury bills are short term instruments issued by the central government only.
- Dated securities are long-term instruments having maturity between 5 years and 40 years.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements with respect to Project RE-HAB:
- Project RE-HAB is a sub-mission under National Honey Mission.
- Project RE-HAB was launched to prevent elephant-human conflict.
- It was launched by Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) had launched a unique project of creating “bee-fences” to mitigate human-elephant conflicts.
- RE-HAB is an acronym for Reducing Elephant – Human conflict using Bees.
- Project RE-HAB is a sub-mission under KVIC’s National Honey Mission.
- While the Honey Mission is a programme to increase the bee population, honey production and beekeepers’ income by setting up apiaries, Project RE-HAB uses bee boxes as a fence to prevent the attack of elephants.
Incorrect
- Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) had launched a unique project of creating “bee-fences” to mitigate human-elephant conflicts.
- RE-HAB is an acronym for Reducing Elephant – Human conflict using Bees.
- Project RE-HAB is a sub-mission under KVIC’s National Honey Mission.
- While the Honey Mission is a programme to increase the bee population, honey production and beekeepers’ income by setting up apiaries, Project RE-HAB uses bee boxes as a fence to prevent the attack of elephants.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following best describes SARTHAQ initiative?
Correct
SARTHAQ, developed by the Department of School Education and Literacy, is an indicative and suggestive implementation plan for school education. It will help in the implementation of the National Education Policy in the country.
Incorrect
SARTHAQ, developed by the Department of School Education and Literacy, is an indicative and suggestive implementation plan for school education. It will help in the implementation of the National Education Policy in the country.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements:
- Neutrinos are fundamental particles belonging to the lepton family.
- Neutrinos have a higher mass than neutrons.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
In particle physics, a lepton is an elementary particle of half-integer spin that does not undergo strong interactions.
Two main classes of leptons exist: charged leptons (also known as the electron-like leptons or muons), and neutral leptons (better known as neutrinos).
Neutrons have a higher mass than neutrinos.Incorrect
In particle physics, a lepton is an elementary particle of half-integer spin that does not undergo strong interactions.
Two main classes of leptons exist: charged leptons (also known as the electron-like leptons or muons), and neutral leptons (better known as neutrinos).
Neutrons have a higher mass than neutrinos. -
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion as the Fundamental Right of an individual.
- The right to freedom of religion is, in general, subject to public order, morality, health and the other provisions of the Constitution.
- Despite the right to religious freedom, the State can pass laws providing for social welfare and reform.
- The state can regulate or restrict any secular activity associated with religious practice.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- Fundamental right under Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, subject to public order, morality and health.
- It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to:
- Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice.
- Providing social welfare and reform.
Opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. (The term ‘Hindus’ includes individuals who profess Sikh, Jain or Buddhist religion).
Incorrect
- Fundamental right under Article 25 of the Constitution guarantees the freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion, subject to public order, morality and health.
- It further provides that this article shall not affect any existing law and shall not prevent the state from making any law relating to:
- Regulation or restriction of any economic, financial, political, or any secular activity associated with religious practice.
- Providing social welfare and reform.
Opening of Hindu religious institutions of public character for all the classes and sections of the Hindus. (The term ‘Hindus’ includes individuals who profess Sikh, Jain or Buddhist religion).
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS):
- It defines a distance of 12 nautical miles from the baseline as Territorial Sea limit and a distance of 200 nautical miles as Exclusive Economic Zone limit.
- An Exclusive Economic Zone is an area of the sea over which a sovereign state has full sovereignty over the waters.
- Both India and the U.S are signatories to UNCLOS.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines the distance of 12 nautical miles from the baseline as Territorial Sea limit and a distance of 200 nautical miles as Exclusive Economic Zone limit.
- EEZ is an area of the sea in which a sovereign state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources, including energy production from water and wind.
- “Territorial Sea” confers full sovereignty over the waters, whereas “Exclusive Economic Zone” is merely a sovereign right that refers to the state’s rights below the surface of the sea.
- While India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea in 1995, the U.S. has failed to do it so far.
Incorrect
- United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) defines the distance of 12 nautical miles from the baseline as Territorial Sea limit and a distance of 200 nautical miles as Exclusive Economic Zone limit.
- EEZ is an area of the sea in which a sovereign state has special rights regarding the exploration and use of marine resources, including energy production from water and wind.
- “Territorial Sea” confers full sovereignty over the waters, whereas “Exclusive Economic Zone” is merely a sovereign right that refers to the state’s rights below the surface of the sea.
- While India ratified the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea in 1995, the U.S. has failed to do it so far.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to NanoSniffer:
- It is the world’s first microsensor based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD).
- It is a 100% Made in India product in terms of research, development & manufacturing.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- NanoSniffer is the world’s first microsensor based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD) developed by NanoSniff Technologies, an IIT Bombay incubated startup.
- NanoSniffer is a 100% ‘Made in India’ product in terms of research, development & manufacturing. The core technology of NanoSniffer is protected by patents in the U.S. & Europe.
- NanoSniff has passed tests conducted by DRDO’s High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL), Pune; and by the National Security Guard (NSG) as well.
Incorrect
- NanoSniffer is the world’s first microsensor based Explosive Trace Detector (ETD) developed by NanoSniff Technologies, an IIT Bombay incubated startup.
- NanoSniffer is a 100% ‘Made in India’ product in terms of research, development & manufacturing. The core technology of NanoSniffer is protected by patents in the U.S. & Europe.
- NanoSniff has passed tests conducted by DRDO’s High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL), Pune; and by the National Security Guard (NSG) as well.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Category: GeographyThe Umngot river is associated with which of the following Indian states?
Correct
Umngot, considered India’s clearest river, is associated with the state of Meghalaya.
Incorrect
Umngot, considered India’s clearest river, is associated with the state of Meghalaya.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Category: GeographyWhich of the following is wrongly matched?
Correct
- Marib is in Yemen. Fighting for the key Yemeni region of Marib has intensified between the pro-government and Houthi rebel fighters. The Houthis have been trying to seize oil-rich Marib, the government’s last significant pocket of territory in the north.
- Nagorno-Karabakh region is recognised as part of Azerbaijan, but it is controlled by ethnic Armenians.
Incorrect
- Marib is in Yemen. Fighting for the key Yemeni region of Marib has intensified between the pro-government and Houthi rebel fighters. The Houthis have been trying to seize oil-rich Marib, the government’s last significant pocket of territory in the north.
- Nagorno-Karabakh region is recognised as part of Azerbaijan, but it is controlled by ethnic Armenians.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyThe ‘muon g-2’ experiment is being carried out in which of the following countries?
Correct
- Fermilab, housing the American particle accelerator, has released the first results from its ‘muon g-2’ experiment.
- These results spotlight the anomalous behaviour of the elementary particle called the muon.
- The muon is considered as a heavier cousin of the electron.
- Muon g−2 is a particle physics experiment at Fermilab to measure the anomalous magnetic dipole moment of a muon to a precision of 0.14 ppm, which will be a sensitive test of the Standard Model. It might also provide evidence of the existence of entirely new particles.
Incorrect
- Fermilab, housing the American particle accelerator, has released the first results from its ‘muon g-2’ experiment.
- These results spotlight the anomalous behaviour of the elementary particle called the muon.
- The muon is considered as a heavier cousin of the electron.
- Muon g−2 is a particle physics experiment at Fermilab to measure the anomalous magnetic dipole moment of a muon to a precision of 0.14 ppm, which will be a sensitive test of the Standard Model. It might also provide evidence of the existence of entirely new particles.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Category: HealthWhich of the following statement’s is/are correct with respect to brucellosis?
- It is a zoonotic infection.
- The disease is caused by a group of bacteria.
- People are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products.
Options:
Correct
- Brucellosis is a disease caused by a group of bacteria from the genus Brucella. These bacteria can infect both humans and animals.
- Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection. It is a bacterial infection that spreads from animals to people. It affects thousands of people worldwide.
- Most commonly, people are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products. Sometimes, the bacteria that cause brucellosis can spread through the air or through direct contact with infected animals.
Incorrect
- Brucellosis is a disease caused by a group of bacteria from the genus Brucella. These bacteria can infect both humans and animals.
- Brucellosis is a zoonotic infection. It is a bacterial infection that spreads from animals to people. It affects thousands of people worldwide.
- Most commonly, people are infected by eating raw or unpasteurized dairy products. Sometimes, the bacteria that cause brucellosis can spread through the air or through direct contact with infected animals.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Category: SchemesConsider the following statements about the GATI initiative:
- It aims to establish a Gender Equality framework in STEM.
- It incorporates a system of grading institutes depending on the enrolment of women and the advancement of the careers of women faculty and scientists.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) is a system of grading institutes depending on the enrolment of women and the advancement of the careers of women faculty and scientists.
- The Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) will develop a comprehensive Charter and a framework for assessing Gender Equality in STEM.
- It is intended to create a level-playing field for meritorious girls in high schools to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
Incorrect
- Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) is a system of grading institutes depending on the enrolment of women and the advancement of the careers of women faculty and scientists.
- The Gender Advancement for Transforming Institutions (GATI) will develop a comprehensive Charter and a framework for assessing Gender Equality in STEM.
- It is intended to create a level-playing field for meritorious girls in high schools to pursue Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) in their higher education.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Category: PolityB. N. Srikrishna Committee was set up to:
Correct
- In August 2017, B. N. Srikrishna Committee was constituted to study and identify key data protection issues and recommend methods to address them.
- Kris Gopalakrishnan Committee was formed by the Ministry of Information Technology in September 2019 to develop a governance framework for Non-Personal Data.
- P K Mohanty Committee was constituted by RBI to review the ownership guidelines and corporate structure for Indian Private Sector Banks.
- Sushil Modi Committee was constituted to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out, and suggest steps for augmenting collections.
Incorrect
- In August 2017, B. N. Srikrishna Committee was constituted to study and identify key data protection issues and recommend methods to address them.
- Kris Gopalakrishnan Committee was formed by the Ministry of Information Technology in September 2019 to develop a governance framework for Non-Personal Data.
- P K Mohanty Committee was constituted by RBI to review the ownership guidelines and corporate structure for Indian Private Sector Banks.
- Sushil Modi Committee was constituted to look into revenue shortfall being faced by the states after the GST roll-out, and suggest steps for augmenting collections.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Category: SchemesWhich of the following statements best describes the ‘Shaphari’ scheme?
Correct
Shapari Scheme is a certification scheme for aquaculture products. ‘Shaphari’ is a Sanksrit word that means superior quality of fishery products suitable for human consumption.
Incorrect
Shapari Scheme is a certification scheme for aquaculture products. ‘Shaphari’ is a Sanksrit word that means superior quality of fishery products suitable for human consumption.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Category: International RelationsWhich of the following cities are associated with the nuclear weapons programme of Iran?
- Natanz
- Arak
- Fordow
Choose the correct option:
Correct
Natanz, Fordow and Arak house Iran’s major nuclear facilities.
Incorrect
Natanz, Fordow and Arak house Iran’s major nuclear facilities.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) as well as the other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites.
- In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, CEC’s decision prevails.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- The Chief Election Commissioner as well as the other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites.
- In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by a majority.
- The chief election commissioner is provided with security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
- Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
Incorrect
- The Chief Election Commissioner as well as the other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the two other election commissioners have equal powers and receive equal salary, allowances and other perquisites.
- In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or two other election commissioners, the matter is decided by the Commission by a majority.
- The chief election commissioner is provided with security of tenure. He cannot be removed from his office except in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he can be removed by the President on the basis of a resolution passed to that effect by both the Houses of Parliament with a special majority, either on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
- Thus, he does not hold his office until the pleasure of the president, though he is appointed by him.
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Category: PolityConsider the following statements:
- The Central government has the power to authorise anyone to use any patents or patent applications for the “purposes of government”.
- The Central government can issue a compulsory licence in circumstances of national emergency or extreme urgency or in case of public non-commercial use.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Under Section 100 of the Patents Act, 1970, the Central government has the power to authorise anyone to use any patents or patent applications for the “purposes of government”.
- Section 92 of the Patents Act allows the Central government to issue a compulsory licence (a licence issued to manufacture the patented product without the consent of the patent holder) in circumstances of national emergency or extreme urgency or in case of public non-commercial use.
Incorrect
- Under Section 100 of the Patents Act, 1970, the Central government has the power to authorise anyone to use any patents or patent applications for the “purposes of government”.
- Section 92 of the Patents Act allows the Central government to issue a compulsory licence (a licence issued to manufacture the patented product without the consent of the patent holder) in circumstances of national emergency or extreme urgency or in case of public non-commercial use.
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with respect to Additional Tier-1 (AT-1) bonds:
- AT-1 bonds are unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel norms.
- They carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- AT-1 bonds are unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel norms.
- They carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years.
- But banks are not obliged to use this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity.
Incorrect
- AT-1 bonds are unsecured, perpetual bonds that banks issue to shore up their core capital base to meet the Basel norms.
- They carry call options that allow banks to redeem them after five or 10 years.
- But banks are not obliged to use this call option and can opt to pay only interest on these bonds for eternity.
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Category: AgricultureConsider the following statements:
- Rabi crops are sown in summer and are harvested in winter.
- Wheat, mustard and barley are Rabi crops.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Rabi crops are sown in the winter season and harvested in spring.
- Wheat, mustard, gram, rapeseed and barley are Rabi crops.
Incorrect
- Rabi crops are sown in the winter season and harvested in spring.
- Wheat, mustard, gram, rapeseed and barley are Rabi crops.
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Category: International RelationsConsider the following statements with respect to Raisina Dialogue:
- It is an inter-government security forum.
- It is hosted by the Ministry of External Affairs and Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
- It is designed to explore prospects and opportunities for Asian integration as well as Asia’s integration with the larger world.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Raisina Dialogue is an annual geo-political event.
- It is organised by the Ministry of External Affairs and Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
- It is designed to explore prospects and opportunities for Asian integration as well as Asia’s integration with the larger world.
- Every year, leaders in politics, business, media, and civil society converge in New Delhi to discuss the state of the world and explore opportunities for cooperation on a wide range of contemporary matters.
- The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion.
Incorrect
- Raisina Dialogue is an annual geo-political event.
- It is organised by the Ministry of External Affairs and Observer Research Foundation (ORF).
- It is designed to explore prospects and opportunities for Asian integration as well as Asia’s integration with the larger world.
- Every year, leaders in politics, business, media, and civil society converge in New Delhi to discuss the state of the world and explore opportunities for cooperation on a wide range of contemporary matters.
- The Dialogue is structured as a multi-stakeholder, cross-sectoral discussion.
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyConsider the following statements:
- Indian Rhino Vision 2020 aimed at attaining a population of 3,000 wild greater one-horned rhinos in seven of Assam’s protected areas by the year 2020.
- Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has the highest density of greater one-horned rhinos.
- Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a tiger reserve hosting greater one-horned rhinos.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- Indian Rhino Vision 2020 aimed at attaining a population of 3,000 wild greater one-horned rhinos in seven of Assam’s protected areas by the year 2020.
- Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has the highest density of greater one-horned rhinos.
- Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a tiger reserve hosting greater one-horned rhino.
- It is also recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.
Incorrect
- Indian Rhino Vision 2020 aimed at attaining a population of 3,000 wild greater one-horned rhinos in seven of Assam’s protected areas by the year 2020.
- Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary has the highest density of greater one-horned rhinos.
- Kaziranga National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and a tiger reserve hosting greater one-horned rhino.
- It is also recognized as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International for the conservation of avifaunal species.
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Category: HistoryConsider the following statements with respect to Jallianwala Bagh Massacre:
- The Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab at the time of the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre was General Reginald Dyer.
- Lord Chelmsford was India’s Viceroy at the time of the incident.
- The gatherers wanted to peacefully protest the arrest and deportation of two national leaders, Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew.
Which of the given statement/s is/are INCORRECT?
Correct
- The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on the 13th of April 1919.
- The Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab at that time was Michael O’Dwyer. Lord Chelmsford was India’s Viceroy.
- The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council which gave them the power to arrest any person without any trial. To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of work) to show Indians’ objection to this rule.
- The Jallianwala Bagh massacre or the Amritsar Massacre took place when many villagers gathered in the park for the celebration of Baisakhi. The gatherers wanted to also peacefully protest the arrest and deportation of two national leaders, Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew.
Incorrect
- The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on the 13th of April 1919.
- The Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab at that time was Michael O’Dwyer. Lord Chelmsford was India’s Viceroy.
- The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council which gave them the power to arrest any person without any trial. To abolish this act, Gandhi and the other leaders called for a Hartal (suspension of work) to show Indians’ objection to this rule.
- The Jallianwala Bagh massacre or the Amritsar Massacre took place when many villagers gathered in the park for the celebration of Baisakhi. The gatherers wanted to also peacefully protest the arrest and deportation of two national leaders, Satyapal and Saifuddin Kitchlew.
-
Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Category: HistoryWhich of the following magazines were started by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
- Mooknayak
- Equality Janta
- Bahishkrit Bharat
- Udbodhana
- Hindoo Patriot
Choose the correct options:
Correct
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar started magazines like Mooknayak, Equality Janta and Bahishkrit Bharat.
Incorrect
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar started magazines like Mooknayak, Equality Janta and Bahishkrit Bharat.
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Category: Environment and EcologyKoundiya wildlife sanctuary is located in:
Correct
Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and an elephant reserve situated in Andhra Pradesh. It is the only sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh with a population of Asian elephants, which migrated after 200 years from neighbouring regions.
Incorrect
Koundinya Wildlife Sanctuary is a wildlife sanctuary and an elephant reserve situated in Andhra Pradesh. It is the only sanctuary in Andhra Pradesh with a population of Asian elephants, which migrated after 200 years from neighbouring regions.
-
Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Category: Science and TechnologyConsider the following statements with respect to Uranium:
- Natural uranium consists of nearly 99% U-238 and only around 0.7% of U-235.
- U-235 is a fissile material that can sustain a chain reaction in a nuclear reactor.
- Nuclear reactors require Highly Enriched Uranium with enrichment of up to 90% or more.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- Natural uranium consists of nearly 99% U-238 and only around 0.7% of U-235.
- U-235 is a fissile material that can sustain a chain reaction in a nuclear reactor.
- Enrichment of up to 3-4% is required for nuclear reactors, which is known as Low Enriched Uranium.
- Enrichment of up to 90% or more is required for nuclear weapons. This is known as Highly Enriched Uranium or weapons-grade uranium.
Incorrect
- Natural uranium consists of nearly 99% U-238 and only around 0.7% of U-235.
- U-235 is a fissile material that can sustain a chain reaction in a nuclear reactor.
- Enrichment of up to 3-4% is required for nuclear reactors, which is known as Low Enriched Uranium.
- Enrichment of up to 90% or more is required for nuclear weapons. This is known as Highly Enriched Uranium or weapons-grade uranium.
-
Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Category: EconomyConsider the following statements with respect to public debt:
- It is the total liabilities of the central government contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India.
- It excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
- Government securities (G-Secs) and treasury bills are sources of public debt.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- The Union government classifies its liabilities into two broad categories.
- The debt contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India is defined as public debt and includes all other funds received outside Consolidated Fund of India under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution, where the government merely acts as a banker or custodian.
- The second type of liabilities is called public account.
- Public debt excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
- Government securities (G-Secs), treasury bills, external assistance, and short-term borrowings are sources of public debt.
Incorrect
- The Union government classifies its liabilities into two broad categories.
- The debt contracted against the Consolidated Fund of India is defined as public debt and includes all other funds received outside Consolidated Fund of India under Article 266 (2) of the Constitution, where the government merely acts as a banker or custodian.
- The second type of liabilities is called public account.
- Public debt excludes liabilities contracted against Public Account.
- Government securities (G-Secs), treasury bills, external assistance, and short-term borrowings are sources of public debt.
-
Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Category: Current AffairsConsider the following statements with respect to International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESR):
- It is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR).
- India is not a signatory to ICESR.
Which of the given statement/s is/are correct?
Correct
- The ICESCR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR).
- India is a signatory to ICESR.
- The Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (CESCR) was set up in 1985 by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
- It was constituted with an aim to monitor on its behalf the implementation of the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESR).
Incorrect
- The ICESCR is part of the International Bill of Human Rights, along with the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) and the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR).
- India is a signatory to ICESR.
- The Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (CESCR) was set up in 1985 by the Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of the United Nations.
- It was constituted with an aim to monitor on its behalf the implementation of the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESR).
-
Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Category: G KState of World Population Report is published by:
Correct
- State of World Population Report is the annual flagship report of the United Nations Population Fund.
- United Nations Population Fund is a UN agency aimed at improving reproductive and maternal health worldwide.
Incorrect
- State of World Population Report is the annual flagship report of the United Nations Population Fund.
- United Nations Population Fund is a UN agency aimed at improving reproductive and maternal health worldwide.
Comments