UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 09 - Jul 15

UPSC 2023: Weekly GK and Current Affairs Quiz Jul 09 – Jul 15 with Multiple Choice Questions and answers for IAS Exam Preparation other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.

UPSC Exam Preparation: This week’s GK and current affairs quiz from Jul 09 – Jul 15 for UPSC Prelims Exam preparation. Test your general knowledge on current affairs now with our weekly GK and current affairs quiz for UPSC Civil Services Exam and other competitive exams like SSC, PCS, Banking exams, etc.

Mock test practice is the sure-shot way to increase your speed in answering questions. The UPSC prelims exam is more about speed, accuracy and analytical thinking rather than about remembering a lot of facts. So, take our quizzes every week and improve your knowledge, speed, and also assess your own preparation levels. The quiz covers a lot of subjects like polity, history, geography, economics, current affairs, science & technology, government schemes, etc.

Post your scores in the comment section below!

Q1. With reference to ‘Changpa’ community of India, consider the following statement:
  1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
  2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield a fine wool.
  3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The Changpa or Champa are a semi-nomadic tribe found mainly in the Changtang region of Ladakh.
  • The Changpas rear the highly pedigreed and prized Changra goats that yield the rare Pashmina (Cashmere) fibre. The pashmina fibre is the finest fibre of all goat hair.
  • As of 2001, the Changpa were classified as a Scheduled Tribe under the Indian government’s reservation program of affirmative action.
Q2. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Constitution does not specify the strength of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor.
  2. The Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor, they can be removed only by the President.
  3. Joint State Public Service Commission is a statutory body.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • A State Public Service Commission performs all those functions in respect of the state services as the UPSC does in relation to the Central services.
  • The Constitution does not specify the strength of the State Public Service Commission (SPSC) but has left the matter to the discretion of the Governor.
  • The Chairman and members of an SPSC are appointed by the Governor, they can be removed only by the President.
  • Joint State Public Service Commission is a statutory body.

Read more on Joint State Public Service Commission.

Q3. With reference to the Rabha Tribe, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. The Rabhas are a tribe from Assam.
  2. Bagurumba is a folk dance in Assam which is performed by the Rabhas.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Rabhas are Scheduled Tribes in Assam.
  • While Bagurumba is a folk dance in Assam, it is performed by the Bodos.
  • Hamja is a folk dance performed by the Rabha tribes.
  • The Hamja Dance is about paddy cultivation.
  • Baikho Dera is the main festival of Rabhas.
Q4. The Sharda Act is one of the significant reforms initiated by the British in India. 
What does it deal with?
  1. Transfer of ancestral property
  2. Child marriage
  3. Remarriage of widows
  4. Prohibition of Sati & female infanticide
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The Child Marriage Restraint Act was a legislative act passed by the British on 28 September 1929.
  • The act fixed the marriageable age for girls at 14 years and 18 years for boys.
  • It is popularly known as the Sharda Act after its sponsor, Harbilas Sarda.
Q5. Arrange the following rivers from west to east:
  1. Ramganga
  2. Gomati
  3. Ghaghara
  4. Gandak

Options:

  1. 1-2-3-4
  2. 2-3-4-1
  3. 3-4-1-2
  4. 4-1-2-3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

West to East: Ramganga – Gomati – Ghaghara – Gandak

Q6. In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended 
purpose, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
  1. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares national emergency/financial emergency.
  2. CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
  3. Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to frame charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
  4. While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2012]

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Comptroller and Auditor General does not exercise exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares a national emergency/financial emergency. He/she has no such powers.
  • CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
  • Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to frame charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.

Read more on Comptroller and Auditor General of India: Role, Functions, Duties.

Q7. Which of the following differences between Debt and Equity is/are correct?
  1. In Debt the maturity is for a fixed period, whereas in Equity it is mostly undetermined.
  2. In Debt the returns are calculated by Dividend/increase in the price, whereas in Equity it is by Coupon Rate.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Funds that a company owes to another party is known as Debt. Funds raised by the company by issuing shares is known as Equity.
  • In Debt, the returns are calculated by the coupon rate or the interest rate (charged against the profit). Whereas the returns on Equity is the dividend (appropriation of profit)/increase in the price of the share.
  • Funds raised through debt financing are to be repaid after the expiry of the specific term. Equity is the source of permanent capital.
  • Term loan, Debentures, Bonds, etc are the examples of Debt.
  • Equity is shares and stocks.
Q8. Consider the following statements about Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair:
  1. He had served as a President of the Indian National Congress.
  2. Sankaran Nair was an advocate who defended Bhagat Singh.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Sir Chettur Sankaran Nair served as a President of the Indian National Congress in 1897.
  • He was the advocate who fought against the Lieutenant-Governor of Punjab, Michael O’Dwyer for the atrocities at the Jallianwala Bagh massacre.
  • He served as a judge of the Madras High Court.
Q9. Consider the following pairs:

          Portal                                           Objective

  1. AMAR                        Online public access catalogue for more than 12000 Indian medical heritage books
  2. E-Medha                 Showcases inscriptions, archeo-botanical information and advanced archeo-genetic studies
  3. SHAI                          Digitized information on rare and hard-to-find manuscripts and catalogues of Ayurveda

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

Five portals of importance have been launched by the Union Minister of Ayush.

  1. AMAR (Ayush Manuscripts Advanced Repository) Portal: It has digitized information on rare and hard to find manuscripts and catalogues of Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Sowa Rigpa in libraries or in individual collections across India or in other parts of the world.
  2. E-Medha (electronic Medical Heritage Accession) Portal: Online public access catalogue for more than 12000 Indian medical heritage books through NIC’s e-granthalaya platform.
  3. SHAI (Showcase of Ayurveda Historical Imprints) Portal: It showcases inscriptions, archaeo-botanical information, sculptures, philological sources and advanced archaeo-genetic studies.
  4. CCRAS-Research Management Information System (RMIS): RMIS is a one-stop solution for Research and Development in Ayurveda-based studies. The portal offers free reference material, research tools, and guidance by scientists and clinicians. It was developed jointly by the Central Council for Research in Ayurvedic Sciences (CCRAS) and the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR).
  5. Ayurveda Dataset on Clinical Trial Registry of India (CTRI): CTRI is a primary Register of Clinical Trials under the WHO’s International Clinical Trials Registry Platform. The creation of an Ayurveda Dataset in CTRI facilitates the usage of Ayurveda terminologies to record clinical study based on Ayurveda interventions. This will enhance worldwide visibility for Ayurveda-based clinical trials.
Q10. With reference to Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC), which of the 
following statements is/are correct?
  1. OPEC has its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland.
  2. Venezuela is the only country from South America which is part of OPEC.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • OPEC is an acronym for the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries. It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization, created at the Baghdad Conference in September 1960 by Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia and Venezuela.
  • OPEC had its headquarters in Geneva, Switzerland, in the first five years of its existence. Due to Switzerland not extending diplomatic assurances, this was moved to Vienna, Austria, in 1965.
  • Venezuela is the only country from South America which is part of OPEC.

Read more on Organization Of The Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC).

Q11. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
  1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries.
  2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The Climate and Clean Air Coalition to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants (CCAC) was launched by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and six countries — Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden, and the United States in 2012.
  • Short-lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) are agents that have a relatively short lifetime in the atmosphere – a few days to a few decades – and a warming influence on climate.
  • The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydrofluorocarbons.
Q12. Which of the given statements with respect to Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD) 
is/are correct?
  1. The dam when completed will be the largest hydroelectric dam in Africa.
  2. It is being constructed on River Sobat, a tributary of River Nile.
  3. It has become a matter of contention between Ethiopia and Egypt.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Grand Ethiopian Renaissance Dam (GERD) when completed will be the largest hydroelectric dam in Africa. The dam is under construction since 2011.
  • It is being constructed on River Blue Nile, in Ethiopia.
  • The GERD has been a matter of contention between Ethiopia, Egypt and Sudan.
Q13. The term ‘Safe harbour immunity’ seen in news refers to:
  1. Agreement between India-Sri Lanka providing immunity to fishermen entering into each other’s territorial waters.
  2. Immunity offered to social media intermediaries from criminal liability.
  3. Immunity from quarantine rules in the EU countries for the holders of Green pass.
  4. Governmental immunity from taxation by state governments in the areas of overlapping tax jurisdiction.
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • ‘Safe harbour immunity’ is the immunity offered to social media intermediaries from criminal liability.
  • The immunity of safe harbour is provided for under Section 79 (1) of the Information Technology Act.
    • Section 79 of the IT Act, states, “an intermediary shall not be liable for any third party information, data, or communication link made available or hosted by him,” therefore providing Safe Harbour protection.
  • So long as the platform acts just as the medium to carry out messages from users without interfering in any manner, it will be safe from criminal liability.
Q14. “Mazar-e-Sharif”, often in news is located in:
  1. Israel
  2. Afghanistan
  3. Iran
  4. Syria
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

“Mazar-e-Sharif” is a city in northern Afghanistan.

Q15. Which of the following Directive Principles of State Policy ensures Constitutional 
Privileges for women in India?
  1. Article 42
  2. Article 48
  3. Article 49
  4. Article 50
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

Article 42 of the Indian Constitution states “The State shall make provision for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief”.

Read more on the Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP).

Q16. The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (UPSC 2017)
  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. EU
  4. G20
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

The Digital Single Market strategy is a strategy of the European Union that aims to open up digital opportunities for people, business and enhance Europe’s position as a world leader in the digital economy.

Q17. With reference to Council of Ministers, which of the following statements is/are 
incorrect?
  1. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President can be enquired by the courts.
  3. President can remove a minister only on the recommendation of the Prime Minister of India.

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  • The nature of advice tendered by ministers to the President cannot be enquired by any court. This provision emphasizes the intimate and confidential relationship between the President and the ministers.
  • President can remove a minister only on the recommendation of the Prime Minister of India.

Read more on Chief Minister & Council of Ministers – Relation, Appointment, Powers

Q18. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
  1. Gunboat Diplomacy – Use of Limited Naval Force as a threat to advance foreign policy.
  2. Shuttle Diplomacy – Diplomatic negotiations conducted by an official intermediary who travels frequently between the nations involved.
  3. Track-one Diplomacy – Formal methods of conflict resolution involving diplomats, ministers, heads of states and representatives of international organisations.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

Types of diplomacy in international politics.

  • Gunboat Diplomacy – Use of Limited Naval Force as a threat to advance foreign policy.
  • Shuttle Diplomacy – Diplomatic negotiations conducted by an official intermediary who travels frequently between the nations involved.
  • Track-one Diplomacy – Formal methods of conflict resolution involving diplomats, ministers, heads of states and representatives of international organisations.
Q19. Pegasus recently seen in news is a
  1. Theft tactic that allows hackers to create a fake credit card by stealing the information off an individual’s actual card
  2. Malware that can initiate total surveillance on the targeted device
  3. Virus capable of slowing down internet traffic
  4. Ransomware attack which has hit hundreds of US companies
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

Pegasus is a spyware tool from Israeli firm NSO Group. It is a malware that can initiate total surveillance on the targeted device. Once Pegasus is installed, the attacker has complete access to the user’s phone.

Q20. Consider the following statements:
  1. This region is surrounded by the Gulf of Aqaba.
  2. The Strait of Tiran connects two water bodies.
  3. Its coastlines touch the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea.

The country in question is:

  1. Jordan
  2. Egypt
  3. Syria
  4. Israel
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

The coastline of Egypt touched both the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea that is connected by the Strait of Tiran. Egypt is bordered by the Gulf of Aqaba.

Q21. Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalization of economic 
policies in 1991? (UPSC 2017)
  1. Share of agriculture in GDP increased enormously.
  2. Share of India’s exports in world trade increased.
  3. FDI inflows increased.
  4. India’s foreign exchange reserves increased enormously.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Post the liberalization of economic policies in 1991, the share of agriculture in GDP did not increase.
  • Some of the positive impacts of LPG reforms are:
    • Increase in share of India’s exports in world trade.
    • Increase in the inflow of Foreign Direct Investment.
    • Increase in India’s foreign exchange reserves.
Q22. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the principle of protection against
 self-incrimination?
  1. Giving voice sample is not a violation of the fundamental right against self-incrimination.
  2. This principle can be used even at the time of police investigation when they are extracting information.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • A person accused of any offence cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself/herself. That is, an accused cannot be compelled to state anything which goes against him/her. This gives rise to the principle of protection against self-incrimination.
  • The principle of protection against self-incrimination is a fundamental principle of the British system of criminal jurisprudence.
  • As per the principle of protection against self-incrimination, giving voice sample is not a violation of the fundamental right against self-incrimination.
  • This principle can be used even at the time of police investigation when they are extracting information.
Q23. Consider the following statements about Planet Saturn:
  1. It is the second-largest planet in our solar system.
  2. It is the only planet with Rings.
  3. Titan is the largest moon of Saturn.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Planet Saturn is the second-largest planet in our solar system.
  • Four of the planets in the Solar System have rings. They are the four giant gas planets Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. 
  • Titan is the largest moon of Saturn.
Q24. Which of the following incidents had occurred when Lord Reading was the Viceroy?
  1. Dandi march
  2. Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre
  3. Establishment of Swaraj party
  4. Kakori Train Robbery
  5. Malabar rebellion

Options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Events that took place when Lord Reading was the Viceroy was the establishment of the Swaraj Party, the Kakori Train Robbery and the Malabar Rebellion.
  • Jallianwalla Bagh Massacre took place when Lord Chelmsford was the viceroy.
  • Dandi March took place when Lord Irwin was the viceroy.
Q25. Which Strait separates Malaysia from the Philippines?
  1. Sunda Strait
  2. Balabac Strait
  3. Strait of Malacca
  4. Strait of Makasar
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

Balabac Strait separates Malaysia from the Philippines.

Q26. 'Basel III Accord' or simply 'Basel III', often seen in the news, seeks to  (UPSC 2015)
  1. Develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
  2. Improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
  3. Reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
  4. Transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

Basel Norms are international banking regulations. Basel III Accord was developed by the Basel Committee on Banking Supervision (BCBS) and was released in 2010. It sought to improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management.

Q27. Consider the following statements about Speaker of Assembly:
  1. He can summon, adjourn the assembly or suspend the meeting in the absence of a quorum.
  2. He decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
  3. He decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The speaker has the power to adjourn the assembly or suspend the meeting in the absence of a quorum.
  • The power to summon the assembly is given to the Governor.
  • The speaker decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not and his decision on this question is final.
  • Governor decides on the question of disqualification of members of the state legislature in consultation with the Election Commission. However, in case of disqualification of a member on the ground of defection under the anti-defection law, the power is with the speaker.
Q28. With reference to Lymphatic filariasis, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. It is a neglected tropical disease.
  2. It is spread from person to person by mosquitoes.
  3. Global Programme to Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis was established by the WHO.

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • Lymphatic filariasis is a Neglected Tropical Disease.
  • The causative organism for Filariasis is a roundworm of the Filarioidea type.
  • Lymphatic Filariasis, also called elephantiasis, is a vector-borne disease, spread by the bite of mosquitoes and black flies.
  • It is a parasitic disease caused by filial worms (parasitic worms).
  • In the human body, the disease parasite is acquired during childhood causing gradual damage in the lymphatic system.
  • Global Programme to Eliminate Lymphatic Filariasis was established by the World Health Organisation.
Q29. Consider the following statements with respect to National Green Tribunal:
  1. It has its presence in four zones only.
  2. The Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone, headquartered in Delhi.
  3. Engaging an advocate is compulsory to approach the Tribunal.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • National Green Tribunal has five zones – North, south, east, west and central zones.
  • The Principal Bench is situated in the North Zone and is headquartered in Delhi.
  • Engaging an advocate is not compulsory to approach the Tribunal. A party can fight his/her own case without an advocate, in the NGT.

Read more: National Green Tribunal (NGT) – Objectives, Members, Chairman & Headquarters.

Q30. Which of the following statements about Chandra Shekhar Azad is/are correct?
  1. He was involved in the Kakori Conspiracy.
  2. Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was formed by Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Chandra Shekhar Azad.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was formed by Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, Sachindra Nath Sanyal and Sachindra Nath Bakshi in 1923.
  • In 1928, it was restructured into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association by Bhagat Singh and Chandrashekhar Azad.
  • Chandrashekhar Azad was involved in the Kakori Conspiracy.
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