10 Apr 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 10 Apr 2022:-Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. High time for ADR mechanisms: CJI
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. IAF completes inquiry into accidental missile firing event
C. GS 3 Related
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
ENVIRONMENT
1. Code red
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. A constitutional crisis in Pakistan
GOVERNANCE
1. Has Mullaperiyar dam panel been changed?
F. Prelims Facts
1. Sangeet Natak, Lalit Kala Akademi awards given
2. ‘Micro-swimmers' may soon help with drug delivery
G. Tidbits
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

1. IAF completes inquiry into accidental missile firing event

Syllabus: India and its neighborhood- relations.

Mains: India-Pakistan Relations and missile malfunction issue

Context:

  • The Indian Air Force (IAF) has completed an inquiry into the accidental firing of a missile that went on to land inside Pakistani territory. The findings of the Court of Inquiry (CoI) have been sent for legal vetting, after which they will be submitted to the government.
    • Legal vetting means making a careful and critical examination of documents to be executed in terms of law. It is one of the several administrative steps in the procedure, which usually takes a few weeks for completion.
  • Know more about the Pakistan missile Misfiring incident

E. Editorials

Category: ENVIRONMENT

1. Code red

Syllabus: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation

Prelims: The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) and IPCC Sixth Assessment Report.

Mains: The key findings and recommendations of the Assessment Report of IPCC and their implications on India.

Context

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change’s (IPCC) third edition of the Sixth Assessment Report.

Details

  • The IPCC usually does not provide policy prescriptions in its assessment reports.
  • A crucial part of the report, called the “Summary for Policymakers”, was approved by 195 member governments of the IPCC.
  • IPCC in its recent assessment report has suggested various measures to contain the rise in temperatures below 2°C.

IPCC Assessment Report

  • The IPCC is currently developing its Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) with contributions by its three Working Groups and a Synthesis Report, three Special Reports, and refinement to its latest Methodology Report.
  • The Working Group I contribution to the Sixth Assessment Report “Climate Change 2021: The Physical Science Basis” was released in August 2021.
  • The Working Group II contribution “Climate Change 2022: Impacts, Adaptation and Vulnerability” was released in February 2022.
  • The Working Group III contribution “Climate Change 2022: Mitigation of Climate Change” was released in April 2022.
  • Scientists from around the globe who are a part of the Working Group III of the IPCC analyse the various interventions that can be made to contain the rise in the temperature by the end of the century.

Read more about IPCC and its Sixth Assessment Report (AR6)

How is the report prepared?

  • The Working Group undertakes the assessment of credible and latest research papers on the technological, environmental, economic and social factors of mitigating the impact of climate change.
  • The group examines various social developments, like the announcements made at the annual Conference of Parties (COP) to prepare the report.
  • The group also studies the role of forest communities, indigenous tribes and corporations in mitigating the adverse impacts of climate change and recommends various measures that must be undertaken in three timelines: until 2030, until 2050 and until 2100.

Key findings of the report

  • The anthropogenic emissions of the Greenhouse Gas (GHG) have constantly increased between 2010–2019.
  • The cumulative net CO2 emissions have also continuously increased since 1850.
  • The Average annual GHG emissions between 2010-2019 were the highest ever recorded in a decade but the rate of increase between 2010 and 2019 was lower than that between 2000 and 2009.
  • The highest increase in the absolute emissions was seen in carbon dioxide from fossil fuels and industry which is followed by the emission of methane.
  • The unit costs of various low-emission technologies have reduced since 2010 but innovation has been lagging in developing countries.
  • Despite the countries adhering to the Nationally Determined Contributions, global warming would still breach the 1.5°C mark in the 21st century.

Measures suggested by the report to limit global warming

  • Containing global warming to below 2°C would require the implementation of rapid measures of mitigation.
  • Increased financial flows and policy support from the governments and the international community must be extended immediately to counter global warming.
  • According to the report, restricting warming to 1.5°C requires global greenhouse gas emissions to peak before 2025 and be reduced by 43% by 2030.
    • During the same period, methane emissions should also be reduced by about 33%
  • The global temperatures will stabilise when carbon dioxide emissions reach net zero and
    • To limit warming at 1.5°C, net zero emissions must be globally achieved by the early 2050s
    • For 2°C, net zero emissions must be achieved by the early 2070s.

Implications on India

  • The report stresses the impact of opening new coal plants and it is of relevance to India.
  • The report suggests that all the coal-fired power plants, without the technology to capture and store carbon (CCS) should be closed down by 2050
    • As per the data from the Central Electricity Authority, India has around 211 GW of operational coal-fired power plants
    • According to Global Energy Monitor data, various other coal plants are being constructed in India.
    • The problem is that none of the existing or the under-construction coal-fired power plants in India have CCS facilities.
  • India has committed to achieve net-zero CO2 emissions by 2070 and has devised a framework to facilitate the transition to renewable energy sources but India has also continued to hold its ground on its right to coal for its developmental needs.

Nut Graf
Although India has welcomed the latest report of IPCC by saying that it recognises India’s stand that developed countries must do more to mitigate climate change, India must undertake measures to address its reliance on coal plants for power generation and also equip the existing and under construction plants with carbon capture and storage technologies.

Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

1. A constitutional crisis in Pakistan

Syllabus: India and its neighbourhood- relations.

Prelims: Doctrine of Necessity

Mains: The Implications of the political crisis in Pakistan in the region.

Context

The political turmoil in Pakistan.

Background

For an overview on the issue refer – UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis dated 04 Apr 2022

Latest Developments

  • The Deputy speaker and the Prime Minister (PM) of Pakistan then tried to counter another no-trust motion by trying to dissolve the Pakistani assembly, with an order from the President.
  • The Supreme Court struck down these actions of the Deputy speaker and the Prime Minister calling them “unconstitutional and illegal”.

Supreme Court’s Ruling

  • The Supreme Court held that the Deputy Speaker’s decision to dismiss the no-trust motion; the PM’s move to seek dissolution of the Assembly without seeking a vote; the President’s decision to dissolve the Assembly and the appointment of a “Caretaker Prime Minister” were all “contrary to the Constitution and have no legal effect”.
  • The Supreme Court ordered the assembly to go through with the trust vote as originally planned.
  • Experts feel that the Supreme Court discarded the constitutional term “doctrine of necessity” which the government had used to justify its earlier actions.
Doctrine of Necessity
  • The “doctrine of necessity” has been proposed by the scholars of France and the U.K.
  • The doctrine is used to authenticate an action “which is otherwise not lawful [but] is made lawful by necessity”.
  • The doctrine is used to justify the extra constitutional actions by authorities, which are made to restore stability.
    • These actions are said to be constitutional even if such actions would generally violate the fundamentals of the Constitution.
  • This doctrine also extends to private individuals who have violated a law wherein the violation of law was necessary to prevent something much worse.
  • This doctrine has been widely misused by the political leaders to justify their acts.
  • In the modern era, it was first used in 1954, after the then Governor-General of Pakistan dismissed the Constituent Assembly, which was approved by the Supreme Court based on the ‘doctrine of necessity’.

Nut Graf
The political crisis in Pakistan will have an impact on the rest of the countries in the region and it is important for the Indian diplomats and policymakers to keep an eye on the developments in Pakistan.

Category: GOVERNANCE

1. Has Mullaperiyar dam panel been changed?

Syllabus: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.

Prelims: Mullaperiyar Dam and Dam Safety Act

Mains: Supreme Court’s ruling on Mullaperiyar Dam and the implications of Dam safety Act on Mullaperiyar Dam.

Context:

The Supreme Court’s ruling on Mullaperiyar Dam

Background

Read more about Mullaperiyar Dam and the issues associated with it in the following article,

Mullaperiyar Dam

Dam Safety Act and its impact on Mullaperiyar Dam

  • Since there was no institutional framework on dam safety, the union government introduced a bill in this regard.
  • The Dam Safety Act, 2021 came into force in December 2021 and it deals with the surveillance, inspection, operation and maintenance of dams across the country.
  • This act holds high reliance on the Mullaperiyar dam.
  • The act has established two institutions, one at the central level and another at the level of States.
    • The National Committee on Dam Safety (NCDS) will formulate dam safety policies and recommend necessary guidelines while National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA) will implement these guidelines and address the issues between States.\
    • At the state level, the State Dam Safety Organisation and State Committees on Dam Safety are set up.
  • NDSA can take up the role of a State Dam Safety Organisation for a dam located in one State and owned and operated by another.
    • This makes the Mullaperiyar come under the law’s purview.

Read more about – Dam Safety Act

Supreme Court’s ruling

  • The Supreme Court directed for the reconstitution of the Mullaperiyar dam’s supervisory committee.
  • The supervisory committee will have one technical expert each from Tamil Nadu and Kerala.
    • As per the Supreme Court’s order, both the two States are required to nominate one representative each to the committee, in addition to one nominee each.
  • The Supreme Court also authorised the panel with functions and powers on par with those of the National Dam Safety Authority (NDSA).
    • Also, apart from empowering the committee with powers and functions of the NDSA, the court authorised it to decide on all the issues related to the safety of the dam and monitor its safety.

Nut Graf
The Supreme Court’s move to restructure the supervisory committee of the Mullaperiyar dam with the inclusion of representatives from both the states is expected to bring the much-needed relief in finding a solution to the tussle between the two states and also address the concerns of the safety of the dam.

F. Prelims Facts

1. Sangeet Natak, Lalit Kala Akademi awards given

Syllabus: GS-1: Art and Culture: Indian culture will cover the salient aspects of Art Forms, literature and Architecture from ancient to modern times.

Prelims: Sangeet Natak, Lalit Kala Akademi

Context: The Lalit Kala Akademi’s Fellowship and National Awards for 2021 were given to 23 by Vice-President M. Venkaiah Naidu at a joint ceremony here on Saturday.

About Sangeet Natak Akademi:

  • The Sangeet Natak Akademi is India’s national academy for music, dance and drama.
  • Akademi is an autonomous body of the Ministry of Culture, Government of India.
  • It is fully funded by the Government for implementation of its schemes and programmes.
  • It is the highest Indian recognition given to practicing artists.
  • Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards:
    • The Sangeet Natak Akademi Awards are national honors bestowed by the government on performing artists and teachers and scholars in the field of performing arts.
    • The awards were given in the categories of music, dance, and theater.
    • In addition, one category was reserved for traditional, folk, and tribal dance, music, theater and puppetry.
    • Akademi Puraskar carries Rs 1,00,000/- (rupees one lakh) along with Tamrapatra and Angavastram.

About Lalit Kala Academy:

  • The Lalit Kala Akademi was inaugurated in New Delhi on August 5th, 1954, by the then Minister for Education, Maulana Abul Kalam Azad.
  • The Lalit Kala Akademi was established in pursuance of the dream of the first Prime Minister of independent India, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru for a cultural and national identity.
  • The LKA was the principal establishment to direct its focus on activities in the field of visual arts.

 

2. ‘Micro-swimmers’ may soon help with drug delivery

Syllabus: GS-3: Science and Technology: Science and Technology- developments and their applications and effects in everyday life.

Prelims: Micro-swimmers

Context: Scientists are experimenting with ways to use ‘Micro-swimmers’  in drug delivery.

What are micro-swimmers?

  • Microswimmers are microscopic objects that can move in liquid environments and were first discovered at the turn of the third millennium.
  • Microswimmers come in a variety of shapes and sizes, and are powered and actuated in a variety of ways.
  • Individual microswimmers and swarms have experimented with a variety of swimming strategies over the years.

Applications of microswimmers:-

The field of biomedical applications, where many interesting examples have already been reported for cargo transport and drug delivery, artificial insemination, sensing, indirect manipulation of cells and other microscopic objects, imaging, and microsurgery, is a particularly promising target for cleverly engineered microswimmers.

Biomedical Applications

Source: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/

G. Tidbits

Nothing here for today!!!

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. With respect to Yakshagana, which of the following statements is/are correct?
  1. It is one of the most popular folk theater forms of Karnataka
  2. In Yakshagana the men portray both male and female characters

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None 
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance form popular in coastal Karnataka districts and some parts of Kerala. It is considered that Yakshagana has originated as a product of the Vaishnava bhakti movement.
  • In Yakshagana the men portray both male and female characters.  The elaborate headgears are decorated differently for Kings and for the demons. The makeup of the demons is done to bring out their demonic character. 
  • Hence all the statements are correct.
  • Know more about Yakshagana | UPSC Art & Culture Notes
Q2. The concentration of ozone in the atmosphere is measured in
  1. Becquerel (Bq)
  2. Dobson Units
  3. Einstein Units
  4. Poise (P) 
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

An ozone analyzer measures the ozone concentration in the air in real time. The Dobson Unit is the most widely used unit for measuring ozone levels.

  • Hence Option B is correct.
Q3. Consider the following statements with respect to Smooth-coated Otters :
  1. They are found throughout India except mangrove forests and semi-arid regions
  2. Smooth-coated otter is listed as Vulnerable in the IUCN Red List
  3. It is legally protected in India under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Smooth-coated Otters are found in most of the Indian Subcontinent and Southeast Asia. The presence of the otter is a key indicator of the mangrove cover. Otter is a carnivorous mammal. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
  • It has been categorized ‘vulnerable’ in the red data book of International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • It is listed on CITES Appendix II. It is legally protected in India under schedule II( NOT schedule I)of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. Hence statement 3 is not correct.
Q4. Which of the following is/are the Quasi- Judicial Bodies?
  1. Election Commission of India
  2. Finance Commission
  3. National Green Tribunal
  4. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Options:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • A quasi-judicial body can be an individual or body with powers resembling a court of law. They can adjudicate and decide penalties on the guilty. They are different from judicial bodies in that their field is limited compared to a court.
  • Decisions of a quasi-judicial body are often legally enforceable under the laws of a jurisdiction.
  • List of Quasi-Judicial Bodies in India are:
  • National Green Tribunal
    1. Central Information Commission
    2. National Human Rights Commission
    3. Tribunal
    4. SEBI
    5. Election Commission of India
    6. Finance Commission

Hence option D is correct.

Q5. The vegetation of Savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive
 areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one 
or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions?
  1. Burrowing animals and termites
  2. Fire
  3. Grazing herbivores
  4. Seasonal rainfall
  5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 4 and 5
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 5
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • Savannas are mostly located near the equator.They are located in South America, India, and northern Australia.The largest savanna is located in Africa .
  • There is no distinct rainy season. Summer is when it rains. Droughts and floods are common occurrences. Tall grass and short trees characterize the savanna landscape due to Grazing intensity(not burrowing animals or termites) Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  • Savannah has a lot of bush fires because of the wet and dry seasons, which can change the forest. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 
  • Because grazing intensity is a major factor in the type of Savannah, grazing herbivores help to keep forests in check. Hence statement 3 is correct. 
  • It has seasonal rainfall, which divides it into three categories: wet, dry, and thornbush.  Hence statement 4 is correct. 
  • Soil properties have an impact on the type of Savannah and its vegetation, but they don’t help to keep it in check once it’s formed. Hence statement 5 is not correct. 

I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

  1. Explain the Doctrine of Necessity with relevant examples. (10 Marks, 150 Words)[GS-2, Polity and Governance]
  2. Discuss the major takeaways from the latest Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change report. (10 Marks, 150 Words)[GS-3, Environment and Ecology]

Read the previous CNA here.

CNA 10 Apr 2022:-Download PDF Here

IAS General Studies Notes Links
Judicial Activism Jawaharlal Nehru History
Rani Chennamma UPSC Anthropology Syllabus
Writ Types In India Mppsc Result
Krishak Samman Nidhi UPSC Previous Year Question Paper
Yajur Veda Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan

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  1.  Anil Kamble
    April 10, 2022 at 3:51 pm

    I love byjus online classes and i got tablet learning

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