18 Sep 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

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CNA 18 Sep 2022:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. UN Security Council- 1267 list
SOCIAL JUSTICE
1. Child Welfare Committees
C. GS 3 Related
ECONOMICS
1. National Logistics Policy
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
ENVIRONMENT
1. Has the emissions deadline been extended?
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Will the future of the Commonwealth change?
F. Prelims Facts
1. Cheetah
G. Tidbits
1. Typhoon Nanmadol
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

Category: SOCIAL JUSTICE

1. Child Welfare Committees

Syllabus: Women and Children associated issues

Mains: Β Policies on Children welfare in India

Context: The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) (JJ) Amendment Bill, 2021 provides that states must constitute one or more Child Welfare Committees (CWC) for each district.

Introduction:

  • The Act provides that states must constitute one or more CWCs for each district.
  • The Act provides several criterias for the appointment of members to CWC.Β  For instance, a member should be: (i) involved in health, education, or welfare of children for at least seven years, or (ii) a practising professional with a degree in child psychology, psychiatry, law, or social work.Β Β 
  • The Bill adds certain criteria for a person to be ineligible to be a member of the CWC.Β  These include: (i) having any record of violation of human rights or child rights, or (ii) being a part of the management of a child care institution in a district.
  • A CWC appointed by the State government has the authority to dispose of cases of children in need of care and protection brought before them.Β 
  • It can also order an inquiry to ensure safety of children and well-being and give an order for their rehabilitation either in family-based care such as through restoration to family or guardian, adoption, foster care or send them to child care institutions.Β 

Recent Changes:

  • The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection Amendment) Model Amendment Rules, 2022 proposed by the Union Ministry of Women and Child DevelopmentΒ  were notified on September 1 2022 and came into effect immediately.Β 
  • The rules make several changes to aspects under the Act including those that govern adoption, foster care and sponsorship, and modify eligibility criteria for joining the CWCs.
  • These rules bar a person associated with an organisation receiving foreign funds to be part of child welfare committees (CWCs).
    • Rules also says that any person working on the implementation of the Act in any NGO or organisation such that it causes conflict of interest will also be ineligible to be on a CWC.Β 
    • It adds that those who have β€œany family member” or β€œclose relation” working for an NGO will be disqualified.Β 

Significance of new rules:

  • Child Care Institutes under the CWC and the state child protection units, had very little oversight and monitoringΒ  and majority of them did not conform to rules and regulations of the JJ Act and had major shortcomings in their management.Β 
  • The new amendment ensures that no new children’s home can be opened without the sanction of the District Magistrate.
  • The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR)Β  has alleged that many child care institutions in the country are being run illegally and are receiving funds from certain suspicious foreign organisations.
  • During the NCPCR survey, CCIs with foreign funding, had been found keeping children in unsanitary conditions which ended in shutting down of 500 illegal child welfare institutions that had not been registered under the JJ Act.
  • New rules will address the issue of possible conflict of interest in CWCs due to receiving of foreign funds or relatives working at NGOs.

Nut Graf: Β Child Welfare Committees are entrusted to ensure safety of children and well-being and given the power of a magistrate and they also receive a salary from the government. New rules barring a person associated with an organisation receiving foreign funds to be part of CWCs are at par with other government officials, who are barred under FCRA from receiving foreign funds.

E. Editorials

Category: ENVIRONMENT

1. Has the emissions deadline been extended?

Syllabus: Environmental pollution and conservation

Mains: Emission norms for Thermal Power Plants.

Context: New guidelines for Thermal power plants regarding pollution control technologies.

Details:

  • The deadline for installing pollution control technologies in the thermal power plants (TPPs) of the country has been extended for the third time by the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEF&CC).
  • To control the nitrogen oxides (NOx), sulphur dioxide (SO2), and mercury (Hg) released from coal-fired power plants, India introduced its first emission control norms in 2015. Under it, TPPs were given a deadline of 2017.

Details of the notification:

  • The power plants were classified into different categories in April 2021 on the basis of the Amended Environment (Protection Act), 1986.
  • MoEFCC has set three different timelines for the installation of pollution control technologies for various types of TPPs:
    • TPPs within a 10 km radius of the Delhi-NCR region and million plus cities: the new deadline is December 31, 2024. The earlier deadline was December 2022 for this category.
    • TPPs within a 10 km radius of critically polluted cities: the Time-limit for this category is revised to December 31, 2025, in contrast to the earlier limit of December 31, 2023.Β 
    • For all other power plants across India, the deadline has been extended fromΒ  December 31, 2024, toΒ  December 31, 2026.
    • For Power plants that are older than 25 years (retiring units), the new timeline is 2027 and for the non-retiring units, the timeline is 2026.
  • Furthermore, the notification was released on the sidelines of the dilution of the emission norms for NOx and water.Β 
    • The water norms for the TPPs installed after January 2017, were relaxed to 3 cubic metres per megawatt-hours in contrast to the earlier limit of 2.5 cubic metres per megawatt-hours. These norms were set in June 2018.
    • In May 2019, similar norms were set for NOx. The limits for NOx emissions were raised from 300 milligrams per cubic metres to 450 milligrams per cubic metres.

Concerns associated with new guidelines:

  • Environmentalists across the country have raised apprehensions about such dilutions and extensions of deadlines.Β 
  • The manner in which the new guidelines have been made since 2015 is often quoted to be worrisome. It is argued that it can potentially dent India’s emission targets and further worsen the air pollution scenario of the country.
  • The share of TPPs with the installation of Flue Gas Desulfurization(FGD) remains abysmally small since the first notification to check the SO2 emissions (it was released seven years ago).
    • FGD is defined as a process to eliminate sulphur compounds from the exhaust emissions of coal-fired power plants. An absorbent material that can eliminate up to 95% of the sulphur from the flue gas by scrubbing, is used in the process.
    • The elimination of SO2 is very important as it is a major contributor to air pollution in India.

Current Status of Desulphurisation units in India:

  • According to Data released on February 2021, Central Electricity Authority (CEA) has highlighted that of the total thermal power of 211. 6 GW across 600 units of India, only 8.2 GW in 20 units have installed FGDs.
  • The installation process of FGDs is time-consuming and usually takes about 36-42 months in commissioning.Β 
  • The data by CEA also reveals that bids for installation of FGDs have been awarded to power plants generating 85.7 GW which is across 190 units approximately.Β 

Challenges that exist:

  • Even after pushing for alternative sources of energy, India depends considerably on coal-based Thermal power plants. It accounts for nearly 75% of the country’s total power generation.Β 
  • The pace at which the bids are awarded for the installation of FGD is inadequate. It will result in the majority of TPP missing the new targets as well.
  • Moreover, there is a lack of vendors for the supply of components of FGD apart from the price rise factor. This was further worsened by the pandemic resulting in supply chain disruptions and human resource deficit.
  • India manufactures only 20 to 30% components of emission reduction and is greatly dependent on imports from China.
  • It is very clear that if the deadlines increase time and again, India will not be able to achieve its target of 20-30% reductions by the year 2024 set under the National Clean Air Programme.

Nut Graf: Environmentalists have criticized the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Changes’ new notification for diluting the emission norms. The transition to cleaner sources of energy will become very difficult with frequent extensions of deadlines. The matter of environmental sustainability should be seriously taken by the concerned authorities in the present scenario of the climate crisis.

Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

1. Will the future of the Commonwealth change?

Syllabus: Important International institutions and agencies

Mains: Analysing the consequences of the death of the British Monarch.

Context: Β Death of Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom.

Details:

  • The Queen was the Head of State for 14 commonwealth countries and she was the longest serving ruler (seventy years).
  • There has been a significant change in the polity of the commonwealth countries during her reign, which will continue at a greater pace following her death. It is often highlighted by many scholars that more countries will remove the British monarch from the position of Head of state, similar to Barbados.
    • Barbados was the eighteenth country to substitute the Head of State with a National Government Functionary in 2021.

For more information, read here: 09 Sep 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

Commonwealth and its realms:

  • It is a group of 56 countries that were previously British colonies. The member countries are mostly located in Africa, the Americas, Asia, and the Pacific.Β 
  • There are three European countries as well, namely, Cyprus, Malta, and the U.K. along with three developed nations Australia, Canada, and New Zealand.
  • It consists of both realms and republics. The realms are headed by the British Monarch, whereas the Republics are ruled by elected representatives. The only exceptions are Brunei Darussalam, Eswatini, Lesotho, Malaysia, and Tonga which have their own self-governed monarchy.
  • The realms include Antigua and Barbuda, Australia, the Bahamas, Belize, Canada, Grenada, Jamaica, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, the Solomon Islands, and Tuvalu.
  • The countries of the group have good relations with each other and foster the policy of coordination through initiatives like Meetings of Heads of State.

For more information on Commonwealth Nations, read here: Commonwealth of Nations & Its Members. UPSC International Relations Notes for GS 2

Countries ending their formal ties with British Monarchy:

  • There are popular movements in Australia that are looking forward to establishing a republic. In this respect, a minister will set in a motion for a gradual transition towards a republic country. A referendum in this regard will be taken up for severing official ties with the British monarchy in the coming months.
  • Similarly, the Prime Minister of the Bahamas has also shown intentions to conduct a referendum for removing the King from his official role as Head of State. It is to be noted that the Bahamas gained independence in 1973.Β 
  • Five other Caribbean countries namely Antigua and Barbuda, Belize, Grenada, Jamaica, and Saint Kitts and Nevis are also of similar views.
  • New Zealand said that it will continue to support the British Monarchs but will also look forward to becoming a republic in the future.

Nut Graf: The death of the Queen will bring winds of change in the commonwealth realms and might result in establishing themselves as republics.

F. Prelims Facts

1. Cheetah

Syllabus: Biodiversity and Environment

Prelims: Extinct Species

Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi released cheetahs into quarantine enclosures in Kuno National Park in Madhya Pradesh on September 18 2022.

Background:

  • 08 wild cheetahs were moved from Namibia to India in the world’s first inter-continental translocation of cheetahs.
  • Cheetahs were declared extinct in India in 1952.
  • Cheetah’s are found in southern and eastern Africa, particularly in Namibia, Botswana, Kenya, and Tanzania, according to the World Wildlife Fund (WWF).
  • This project is a part of India’s efforts to revitalise and diversify its wildlife and habitat.

Read more on Reintroduction of Cheetah’s in India

G. Tidbits

1. Typhoon Nanmadol

  • The Japan Meteorological Agency urged residents to evacuate parts of the southern island of Kyushu ahead ofΒ  typhoon Nanmadol.
  • Typhoon Nanmadol has the potential to be the most destructive tropical storm to strike Japan in decades.Β 
  • Japan Meteorological Agency issued its highest alert for the Kagoshima region, a warning that comes when it forecasts conditions seen only once in several decades.
  • Typhoons are tropical cyclones occurring in the western part of the Pacific Ocean. These are found along the coasts of Japan, China, Philippines, etc.Β 

Read more on Tropical Cyclones

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements with respect to Lokayuktas: (Level-Difficult)
  1. The institution was first established in the state of Rajasthan
  2. Judicial qualifications are prescribed for lokayukta in Bihar, Maharashtra and Rajasthan
  3. In most of the states lokayukta can initiate investigation Suo moto

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Statement 01 is incorrect, The institution of Lokayukta was first established in Maharashtra in 1971. Although Odisha had passed an Act in this regard in 1970, it came into force only in 1983.
  • Statement 02 is incorrect, Judicial qualifications are prescribed for the lokayukta in the States of Himachal Pradesh,Β  Uttar Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Orissa, Karnataka and Assam. But no specific qualifications are prescribed in the states of Bihar, Maharashtra and Rajasthan.
  • Statement 03 is correct, Lokayukta can initiate investigation Suo moto against public officials in most of the states.
Q2. With respect to the Ninth Schedule in the Indian Constitution, which of the 
following statements is/are correct? (Level-Medium)
  1. This schedule was added by the 42nd Amendment by the Indira Gandhi Government to protect laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
  2. Even laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated fundamental rights or the basic structure of the Constitution

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Statement 01 is incorrect, 1st Constitutional Amendment Act 1951 added the Ninth Schedule to protect the laws included in it from judicial scrutiny on the ground of violation of fundamental rights.
  • Statement 02 is correct, The Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which cannot be challenged in courts. The first Amendment added 13 laws to the Schedule. But, laws under the Ninth Schedule would be open to scrutiny if they violated fundamental rights or the basic structure of the Constitution
Q3. Consider the following Pairs: (Level-Difficult)

Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β ValleyΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β State/UT

  1. BetaabΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Uttarakhand
  2. LidderΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β Β  Β Sikkim
  3. PahalgamΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  J&K
  4. SpitiΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Himachal Pradesh

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?Β 

  1. Only one pair
  2. Only two pairs
  3. Only three pairs
  4. All four pairs
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Pair 01 is incorrectly matched, Betaab valley, originally called Hajan Valley or Hagan Valley is situated inΒ  Jammu and Kashmir.Β 
  • Pair 02 is incorrectly matched, The Lidder Valley is in Jammu and Kashmir. It is bordered by Kashmir Valley to the west, and Sind Valley to the north.The Lidder River flows down the valley.Β 
  • Pair 03 is correctly matched,Pahalgam valley is inΒ  Jammu and Kashmir. It is a popular tourist destination which is associated with the annual pilgrimage to the shrine Amarnath Yatra.Β 
  • Pair 04 is correctly matched,Β  Spiti valley is located in the north-eastern part of Himachal Pradesh.
Q4. Which of the following statements with respect to Sea cucumbers is/are correct? 
(Level-Difficult)
  1. They are marine invertebrates that are found only in salt water.
  2. Sea cucumber in India is listed under schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act of 1972.
  3. Brown Sea Cucumber is listed as endangered by IUCN

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

  • Statement 01 is correct,Β  Sea cucumbers are marine invertebrates that live on the seafloor found generally in tropical regions
  • Statement 02 is correct, They are protected under Schedule I under the Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972. Their trade is banned under the Act.
  • Statement 03 is correct, Brown Sea Cucumber is listed as Endangered in IUCN Red List,Β  Blackspotted Sea CucumberΒ  is listed as Least Concern.
Q5. Consider the following pairs: (Level-Difficult) (UPSC Prelims-2022)

Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Peak:Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Mountains

  1. Namcha BarwaΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β Garhwal Himalaya
  2. Nanda DeviΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β Kumaon Himalaya
  3. NokrekΒ  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β  Β Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Pair 01 is incorrectly matched,Β  Namcha Barwa is considered as the Eastern point of the Himalayas and is located on the extreme east of the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.Β 
  • Pair 02 is correctly matched, Nanda Devi, situated in Uttarakhand is the second highest mountain in India and it is part of the Kumaon Himalayas lying between Satluj and Kali rivers.
  • Pair 03 is incorrectly matched, Nokrek is the highest peak in West Garo Hills of Meghalaya.

CNA 18 Sep 2022:- Download PDF Here

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