CNA 12 Nov 2021:- Download PDF Here
TABLE OF CONTENTS
A. GS 1 Related B. GS 2 Related POLITY AND GOVERNANCE 1. Mitigating hunger during a pandemic INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS 1. Xi warns against Cold War in Asia-Pacific C. GS 3 Related ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY 1. India seeks $1 tn in ‘climate finance’ to meet its targets D. GS 4 Related E. Editorials ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY 1. The lowdown on India’s Glasgow announcement POLITY AND GOVERNANCE 1. A tax burden that attacks the federal rights of States INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS 1. Undefined role DISASTER MANAGEMENT 1. Season of floods F. Prelims Facts 1. Jairam moves privilege motion against Minister G. Tidbits 1. Governors should play role of friend, guide: President 2. China, U.S. to increase climate cooperation H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
A. GS 1 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
B. GS 2 Related
Category: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. Mitigating hunger during a pandemic
Context:
- The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PMGKAY) comes to an end in November 2021.
- Food Secretary has stated that there were no plans to extend the scheme beyond November, as the government feels that the economy is reviving and there is no further need for the support scheme.
Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana:
- The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana was started as part of the Centre’s initial COVID-19 relief package announced at the onset of the first wave of the COVID-19 pandemic in March 2020.
- The scheme provides 5 kg of rice or wheat every month to be distributed free of cost to each of the 80-crore beneficiaries of the National Food Security Act (NFSA). This is over and above the 5 kg already provided to ration card holders at a subsidised rate.
- The scheme only provided grains for those families who held ration cards.
- Initially, one kg of pulses was also provided under the scheme, which was later discontinued.
- The scheme was initially meant to run from April to June 2020, but has since been extended.
- Recognizing the difficulty being faced by migrant workers and people without ration cards, in May and June 2020, the Centre allocated 8 lakh tonnes of foodgrains to be distributed by the States under the Atma Nirbhar Bharat scheme for stranded migrants and others without ration cards.
Arguments for extension of PMGKAY:
- The Right to Food Campaign points out the record levels of unemployment and widespread hunger among vulnerable communities and their dire need for support from the state.
- They also point out that the Union Government has sufficient grain stocks to extend the scheme.
- In the last few years, foodgrains have been produced at record levels and the government procurement from farmers at minimum support prices has also been on the rise implying sufficient food stocks with the Food Corporation of India (FCI).
- They also point out to the SC judgment in the suo moto case on the plight of migrant workers, where the SC had directed the Centre and the States to provide foodgrains to mitigate the impact of the pandemic.
Demand by the food rights activists:
- The Right to Food Campaign has called on the government to extend PMGKAY for another six months and also universalise the Public Distribution System (PDS) itself.
- They have also suggested that pulses and cooking oils be added to the monthly entitlements.
Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. Xi warns against Cold War in Asia-Pacific
Context:
- Speaking at the sidelines of the annual summit of the Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) forum, the Chinese President has warned against letting tensions in the Asia-Pacific region cause a relapse into a Cold War mentality.
Background:
Tensions in the Asia-Pacific region:
- China claims vast parts of the South China Sea and other areas and has moved to establish a military presence and are even building islands in some disputed areas. This has been criticized by other regional nations as well as countries like the U.S. which have pointed out the increasing assertiveness of China in the region.
- The U.S. and its allies have undertaken freedom of navigation exercises in the South China Sea to counter China’s claims.
- The Indo-Pacific region has assumed great significance in the United States’ foreign policy calculus as its tensions with China have only grown.
- In what is being considered as a move against increasing Chinese assertiveness, the U.S., Britain and Australia announced a new security alliance in the Asia-Pacific region which would see Australia build nuclear submarines with the support of the U.S. and U.K. China had criticised the new trilateral security partnership (called AUKUS) and had cautioned that the new pact would undermine regional peace and stability and “intensify” an arms race and undermine international non-proliferation efforts.
- Many of the countries in Asia have been trying to balance Chinese and U.S. influences on the economic and geopolitical fronts.
Details:
- The Chinese President in what could be considered as a reference to the U.S. efforts to isolate China in the region has stated that attempts to draw boundaries in the region along ideological or geopolitical lines would fail.
- He warned that such efforts should be abandoned given that it could push the region into confrontation and division as observed in the Cold War era.
- The Chinese President stated that instead, the countries should focus on liberalising trade and investment which could provide much-needed impetus to economic growth and development in the post-pandemic phase.
Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation:
- The Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC) is an inter-governmental forum for 21 member economies in the Pacific Rim that promotes free trade throughout the Asia-Pacific region.
- The APEC started in 1989 and is headquartered in Singapore.
- APEC is recognized as one of the highest-level multilateral blocs and oldest forums in the Asia-Pacific region.
- APEC members account for nearly 3 billion people and about 60% of the world’s GDP. Its members include the U.S., China, Taiwan, Russia, and Australia among others.
- Note: India is not a member of the APEC and it has been trying to get the membership of APEC.
C. GS 3 Related
Category: ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
1. India seeks $1 tn in ‘climate finance’ to meet its targets
Background:
- India had committed to new climate action goals at the ongoing COP26 climate agreement negotiations in Glasgow.
- India’s new climate action goals are based on a five-fold plan aimed at reducing the carbon intensity of the economy and achieving net zero subsequently.
Image source: The Hindu
Details:
- India has demanded a trillion dollars over the next decade from developed countries as a condition for delivering on its new climate commitments.
- Hence India has indicated that its NDCs (Nationally Determined Contribution) are conditional.
- NDCs are voluntary targets that countries set for themselves, which describe the quantum and kind of emission cuts they will undertake over a fixed period to contribute to global climate action. NDCs can be submitted with conditions.
- Notably, India has not submitted its revised NDCs as yet though nations were expected to provide updated NDCs before the beginning of COP26.
- India’s last NDC was submitted following the 2015 Paris deal.
- The Indian Prime Minister while announcing the new climate action goals for India had called on rich developed countries to provide at least $1 trillion in climate finance annually to assist developing and vulnerable countries.
- Notably, the developed countries, as a group, have failed to provide $100 billion annually by 2020, as agreed in COP15, 2009.
D. GS 4 Related
Nothing here for today!!!
E. Editorials
Category: ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY
1. The lowdown on India’s Glasgow announcement
- Prime Minister’s ambitious declarations at the COP 26 Climate Summit in Glasgow, Scotland have received a muted response from the international community. While in India, climate analysts have praised the new development approach catering to the needs of sustainability, international commentators have criticised India’s Net Zero emissions trajectory by 2070 instead of 2050.
Persistent Trend
- The Policy elaborated at Glasgow is in line with India’s consistent support and consensus prevailing since the COP 21 in Paris.
- India put out a statement that we need to grow rapidly to meet the aspiration of a 1.25 billion population, and out of this, 300 million people are without access to energy.
- Yet despite the growing demands, India has pledged to reduce emissions intensity per unit GDP by 33-35% of 2005 levels.
- Aiming to reach 40% of installed capacity from non-fossil fuels.
- Targeting 175 GW of renewable energy generation by 2022.
- Planning to enlarge forest cover to absorb 2.5 billion tonnes worth of carbon dioxide.
- This change was in contrast to the long-held position that India was still a developing country and not responsible for the historical emissions. Consequently, it was not obliged to cut emissions.
- India’s pledge at Glasgow adheres to the need to tackle escalating climate crises as enunciated in the Paris Agreement.
- However, there are contradictory signals from the Government at COP 26 and the recently concluded G20 summit in Rome.
- Officials were proclaiming the unacceptability of net-zero and the unlikelihood of higher targets by India at Rome.
- Senior officials at Glasgow have stated that the commitments are contingent on financial assistance from developed countries.
- India could have communicated the insufficiency of the pledges of the developed countries and could have worked to extract more significant emission cuts from them.
The Substance
- India’s new targets comprise five elements which the Prime Minister called Panchamrit.
- Reduction of Emissions Intensity (EI), or emissions per unit of GDP, by 45% in 2030 relative to 2005 levels.
- From now to 2030, the projected carbon emissions to be reduced by one billion tonnes.
- 500 GW of installed renewable generation capacity by 2030.
- 50% electricity generation from renewable sources by 2030.
- Net-zero emissions by 2070.
- India’s submissions of NDCs show a steady decline of emission intensity of 2% p.a. from 2005 onwards which is achievable and on par with the capacity of an emerging country.
- India’s current annual emissions are around 2.8 billion tonnes and are projected to reach about 4.5 billion tonnes in 2030. Hence the commitments at Glasgow would need a substantial 20% reduction. PM also announced the Railways’ net-zero 2030 target cutting 60 million tonnes annually, and LED bulbs cutting another 40 million tonnes a year over the next decade.
- On the power generation capacity, India has added around 101 GW of solar and wind energy against the target of 175 GW commitment at Paris. The Central Electricity Authority (CEA) in its 2020 Report on Energy Mix for 2029-30 has projected around 525 GW or 64.3% non-fossil fuel installed capacity including 280 GW solar and 140 GW wind. From this, India has virtually pledged no additional coal power at Glasgow. Analysts have however highlighted the difficulties in achieving the same combined with the need for storage and grid stability.
Address the deep inequities
- India should also embrace the low carbon approach based on the Lifestyle for Environment (LIFE).
- India should seek to achieve equity within the country along with the calls for parity and climate justice between nations. It should move beyond mitigation towards a more multi-sectoral approach.
- Adoption of EV and fuel cell vehicles, scaling up of mass public transport, CCUS, green building codes, recycling with emphasis on methane recovery could be the key aspects of this multi-sectoral approach.
Where New Delhi slipped
- India could have joined the declaration to end deforestation by 2030. There are concerns that India is not doing enough and the perceived influence of corporate interests is also a cause of concern. India’s commitments also don’t mention the NCD target for forest and tree covers.
- India did not join the Global Methane Pledge to reduce the effects of short-lived but potent greenhouse gas by 30% by 2030 from 2020 levels.
Way Forward
- India also launched a key international climate initiative called Infrastructure for Resilient Island States (IRIS), aimed at providing technical, knowledge, and financial assistance to small island nations with the help of developed countries. Expertise in this regard can be applied domestically too, where coastal erosion, sea-level rise, and urban flooding have been increasing with erratic rainfall patterns and increasing urbanisation.
- The updating of NDC can be done through a cross-partisan multi-stakeholder consultative process that would make it truly nationally determined and implemented.
Category: POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. A tax burden that attacks the federal rights of States
- The Government reduced excise duty on petrol and diesel on the eve of Deepavali. This reduction for petrol was ₹5 and duty on diesel came down by ₹10.
- Constitution permits the use of Cess and Surcharge to meet an extraordinary situation.
- The surcharge is an additional charge or tax over and above the existing tax while the cess is a form of tax levied by the government on tax with a specific purpose. Article 270 of the Constitution describes a Cess and Surcharge is dealt with under Article 271 of the Constitution.
Concerns
- Some states have been critical of the Centre’s usage of these provisions. For example, the Centre has been levying around ₹31 and ₹33 as additional cess on petrol and diesel, respectively, till the beginning of November.
- They highlight that in some cases, they are manifold higher than the basic taxes which is a misuse of the provisions of the Constitution.
- Since these additional charges are not part of the divisible pool, it undermines the fiscal federalism as enumerated in the Constitution and the autonomy of the states.
- Article 271 which was supposed to be used as a saving clause is being misused by the Centre.
Revenue Data
- According to the data released by Petroleum Planning and Analysis Cell (PPAC), the Centre has collected around ₹3.72 lakh crore in 2020-21 as revenue from petroleum products. Of this, only around ₹18,000 crores are collected as Basic Excise Duty. Around ₹2.3 lakh crore is collected as cess and the rest ₹1.2 lakh crore is collected as special additional excise duty.
- The divisible pool of 41% as decided by the Finance Commission applies only to the ₹18,000 crores.
- Even after the implementation of GST, States had retained the right to decide on the taxes on petroleum products and alcohol. With the usage of these additional taxes, the Centre has been unilaterally taking away the tax revenues which should be shared with the states.
- The need to alleviate the stress caused by the pandemic has increased the financial burden on the States. States need assistance to offer financial and social security to people.
Relevance of RNR
- A key aspect of GST implementation was that it would be a revenue-neutral rate (RNR) to ensure that the State’s revenues would not be diminished.
- Pre-GST, the average tax on goods was 16%. It is 11.3% at present. States are criticising that most essential items are more expensive than the pre-GST price and that the reforms have not benefited the consumers.
- States would have received at least ₹3-lakh crore additionally if the pre-GST rates were maintained. A detailed study must be conducted on why the States are losing their revenue streams.
- States are also apprehensive about the National Monetisation Pipeline and other neoliberal policies due to the mistrust which is increasing.
Entities that Gain
- The initiatives to aid the recovery process post COVID such as the reductions in corporate tax have increased the revenue shortages for the Centre and hence the States. The Centre, in turn, has been compensating for this by charging additional taxes on petrol and diesel.
Conclusion:
- The Centre should communicate and alleviate the concerns of the states to ensure that the principles of fiscal federalism are respected and taxes are decided democratically for States or the Country to thrive.
Category: INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
- The Third Regional Security Dialogue on Afghanistan was conducted in New Delhi. It was chaired by NSA Ajit Doval.
- India has sent three strong messages through this –
- India continues to remain an important player in the future of Afghanistan.
- An ideal solution to the ongoing crisis is possible through a consensus of important powers in the neighbourhood including Russia. Since the exit of U.S.-NATO troops, the consultation process is even more significant and need of the hour.
- The humanitarian crisis unleashed in Afghanistan should become the region’s priority and other differences have to be set aside in the short term. This was reflected in the invitation offered to both NSAs from China and Pakistan. This was done despite the border standoffs with China and differences over cross-border terrorism and Kashmir with Pakistan.
- The Delhi Declaration which was issued by the participating nations can be considered a significant milestone in keeping India at the table on key decisions on Afghanistan.
- It called for an inclusive government in Afghanistan that represents its diversity and a national reconciliation process to prevent the escalation of violence.
- The declaration uses strong language against terrorism and radicalisation.
- Significant differences remain among the countries on the future of Afghanistan. Many countries are going ahead with the normalisation of ties with the Taliban. For example, the Troika-plus consisting of U.S.-China-Russia-Pakistan is taking place with the Taliban Foreign Minister, in Islamabad in November 2021.
- India should define clearly its role in Afghanistan. While India has held talks with the Taliban, it has also refused visa seekers and made no monetary contribution to the humanitarian crisis unfolding in Afghanistan.
- As an emerging power in the region, India should play an active role in Afghanistan’s destiny by defining and furthering the cause for regional security.
- The recent spell of heavy rains in Chennai has exposed the vulnerability of the city, with flat terrain, to floods.
- Parts of Chennai received rainfall of over 22 cm. This was due to the heavy rainfalls which were followed by the depression in the Bay of Bengal which crossed the coast near Chennai.
- This bought back the haunted memories of the Chennai floods in 2015 and the management of surplus waters from the reservoirs.
- The main causes of this recurring problem are the mismanagement of urban spaces, lack of effective coverage of stormwater drains, maintenance of sewer networks in core areas, and encroachment of wetlands.
- If managed well, the rivers such as Cooum and Adyar along with Buckingham Canal can prevent many areas from inundation.
- Swift completion of the stormwater drain projects and other durable solutions should be considered to address the long-standing woes of the city. For their part, citizen participation is key for the maintenance of the water bodies in the city.
F. Prelims Facts
1. Jairam moves privilege motion against Minister
Privilege motion:
- Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and immunities enjoyed by members of Parliament, individually and collectively, so that they can “effectively discharge their functions”. When any of these rights and immunities are disregarded, the offence is called a breach of privilege and is punishable under law of Parliament.
- A notice is moved in the form of a motion by any member of either House against those being held guilty of breach of privilege.
- Each House also claims the right to punish as contempt actions which, while not breach of any specific privilege, are offences against its authority and dignity.
Also read: Indian Parliamentary Privileges
Privilege Committees:
- In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a committee of privileges consisting of 15 members as per respective party strengths.
- In the Rajya Sabha, the deputy chairperson heads the committee of privileges, which consists of 10 members.
Context:
- An opposition leader in the Rajya Sabha has moved a privilege motion against the serving Culture Minister over the appointment of the Chairperson of the National Monuments Authority.
- The privilege motion argues that the person appointed to the post was not qualified to hold the post as the person does not meet the requirements for the post as specified by Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Amendment and Validation) Act, 2010 passed by Parliament.
- The privilege motion against the Union Minister of Culture is for willfully disregarding the provisions of a law passed by the Parliament.
G. Tidbits
1. Governors should play role of friend, guide: President
- Speaking at the 51st conference of Governors, Lieutenant-Governors and Administrators, the President called upon Governors to play the role of a “friend, philosopher and guide” in their States. The President noted how the Governors could play an important role in creating awareness of national goals and ensuring participation of the public in the achievement of these goals.
- The Vice-President urged Governors to proactively monitor and guide State Governments in the implementation of Central programmes.
- The Prime Minister pointed out that the institution of the Governor functioned as a critical connect between the Centre and the State.
2. China, U.S. to increase climate cooperation
- Despite numerous tensions and disputes between the two nations, China and the U.S. have agreed to increase GHG emission mitigation efforts and also deepen their cooperation in this regard.
- Beijing and Washington have agreed to share technology to reduce emissions.
- China has agreed to cut down on methane emissions.
- The two countries would work together to accelerate the emissions reductions required to meet the goals of the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change.
- China and the United States are the world’s top carbon emitters.
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
Q1. Consider the following statements about the Governor of a state:
- The office of Governor of a State is an employment under the Government of India
- He is given immunity from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts during his term as the Governor.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: a
Explanation:
- The office of the Governor is not employment under government. Thus, the Constitution has no bar on retired judges of High Courts or the Supreme Court being appointed as Governors. Notably the Supreme Court too in various cases has observed that the office of the Governor is not an employment under the Government of India.
- The Governor is given immunity from any criminal proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts during his term as the Governor.
- Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides that no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President, or the Governor of a State, in any court during his term of office
Q2. With respect to Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is the highest sporting honour of India.
- The Khel Ratna award was instituted in 1991-1992
- The first recipient was Chess legend Viswanathan Anand.
Options:
- 1 and 2 only
- 2 and 3 only
- 1 and 3 only
- 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: d
Explanation:
- The Khel Ratna Award, officially known as the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, formerly known as the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in Sports and Games, is the highest sporting honour of India.
- It is awarded annually by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports.
- The recipient(s) is/are honoured for their “spectacular and most outstanding performance in the field of sports over a period of four years” at international level.
- The award was first instituted in 1991–1992 and the the first recipient of the award was Chess Grandmaster Viswanathan Anand, who was honoured for the performance in the year 1991–92.
Q3.Arrange the following in a chronological order as per their annexation by the Doctrine of Lapse?
- Satara
- Sambalpur
- Udaipur
- Jhansi
- Jaitpur
- Nagpur
- Baghat
Options:
- 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
- 1, 5, 2, 7, 3, 4, 6
- 2, 7, 6, 4, 1, 5, 3
- 7, 6, 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: b
Explanation:
- The doctrine of lapse was a policy of annexation initiated by the East India Company in the Indian subcontinent against the princely states.
- The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856.
- According to the doctrine, any Indian princely state under the suzerainty of the East India Company (EIC) (the dominant imperial power in the Indian subsidiary system), would have its princely status abolished (and therefore be annexed into British India) if the ruler was either “manifestly incompetent or died without a male heir”.
- The doctrine and its applications were widely regarded as illegitimate by many Indians, leading to resentment against the EIC.
Q4. Which of the following statements about Onake Obavva is/are correct?
- She led an armed rebellion against the British East India Company in defiance of the doctrine of lapse
- She belonged to the Chowta dynasty who ruled over parts of coastal Karnataka
Options:
- 1 only
- 2 only
- Both
- None
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: d
Explanation:
- Onake Obavva died fighting the troops of Hyder Ali, a ruler of the Mysore Kingdom and father of Tipu Sultan, when he invaded the Chitradurga Fort, which was ruled by Madakari Nayaka in the 18th century.
- Chitradurga Fort, locally known as Elusuttina Kote, (the fort of seven circles in Kannada), is situated in Chitradurga, 200 km northwest of Bengaluru.
- Obavva is considered to be the epitome of Kannada pride and celebrated along with other women warriors of Karnataka state like Abbakka Rani (first Tuluva Queen of Ullal in coastal Karnataka who fought the Portuguese), Keladi Chennamma (the queen of the Keladi Kingdom who is known for fighting against Mughal emperor Aurangzeb), and Kittur Chennamma (Queen of Kittur known for the 1824 revolt against the British East India Company).
Q5. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?(UPSC-2017)
- Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- Abolition of untouchability
- Protection of the interests of minorities
- Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- 1, 2 and 4 only
- 2, 3 and 4 only
- 1 and 4 only
- 1, 2, 3 and 4
CHECK ANSWERS:-
Answer: c
Explanation:
- Article 23 and 24 of the Indian Constitution deals with the right against exploitation.
- The Article 23 of the Indian Constitution prohibits human trafficking and begar (forced labour without payment).
- Article 24 of the Indian Constitution prohibits child labour. It forbids employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories and mines. However, it did not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
- Is it time for India to leave its sideline position and actively participate in resolving the issues in Afghanistan? Substantiate your answer. (250 words; 15 marks)[GS-2, International Relations]
- There is still a gulf between India’s climate change commitments and their realization. Suggest measures to fill in this gap. (250 words; 15 marks)[GS-3, Environment and Ecology]
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CNA 12 Nov 2021:- Download PDF Here
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