25 Dec 2021: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

CNA 25 Dec 2021:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. No UAPA in Haridwar hate speech case
C. GS 3 Related
ECONOMY
1. ‘Monetary policy is financially inclusive’
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. Under Modi 2.0, a course-corrected foreign policy
2. Simple ways to better counts of Omicron in India
F. Prelims Facts
1. Plea in SC seeks ‘uniform judicial code’ for High Courts
2. ‘Bail without giving cogent reason cannot be sustained’
G. Tidbits
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

2. ‘Bail without giving cogent reason cannot be sustained’

Context: 

The Supreme Court observed that Bail cannot be granted, especially to an accused in a heinous crime, as a “matter of course”.

What is a Bail?

  • Bail is a procedure used to guarantee that the accused appears in court and is ready for trial.
  • The notion of bail is addressed in sections 436 to 439 of the Criminal Procedure Code.

Difference between bailable and non-bailable offense

  • Non-bailable: The police officer cannot give bail to the accused if the offense committed is not bailable. In the case of a non-bailable offense, only the magistrate can grant bail. When the sentence for an infraction is more than three years, it is considered to be non-bailable. 
  • Bailable: In the case of a bailable offense, the police officer in charge has the authority to issue bail to the accused. When the sentence for an offense is less than three years, the offense is considered to be bailable. In the case of a bailable offense, the accused has the right to be freed on bail.

Know more about Bail.

G. Tidbits

Nothing here for today!!!

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to the Right to Education:
  1. The Act mandates that non-minority private unaided schools should reserve at least 25% of seats in entry-level grades for children from economically weaker and disadvantaged backgrounds.
  2. In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the Unnikrishnan JP vs State of Andhra Pradesh & Others held that Education is a fundamental right flowing from Article 21.
  3. Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) was set up, which encompassed the insertion of Article 21A.

Choose the correct statements:

  1. 1 & 2 only
  2. 2 & 3 only
  3. 1 & 3 only
  4. All of the above
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation

  • Section 12(1)(c) mandates that non-minority private unaided schools should reserve at least 25% of seats in entry-level grades for children from economically weaker and disadvantaged backgrounds. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • In 1993, the Supreme Court’s landmark judgment in the Unnikrishnan JP vs State of Andhra Pradesh & Others held that Education is a fundamental right flowing from Article 21. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • Tapas Majumdar Committee (1999) was set up, which encompassed the insertion of Article 21A. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
Q2. Which of the following statements with regards to NASA’s James Webb Space Telescope 
is not correct?
  1. It is the most powerful infrared telescope of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).
  2. It is also considered a successor of the Hubble Telescope and will extend and complement its discoveries.
  3. It was launched into low Earth orbit in 1990, and has made more than 1.4 million observations, including tracking interstellar objects, capturing a comet colliding with Jupiter, and discovering moons around Pluto.
  4. The telescope is the result of an international collaboration between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA).
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation

  • The James Webb Space Telescope is the most powerful infrared telescope of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA).  Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • It is also considered a successor of the Hubble Telescope and will extend and complement its discoveries. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • Launched into low Earth orbit in 1990, the Hubble Space Telescope has made more than 1.4 million observations, including tracking interstellar objects, capturing a comet colliding with Jupiter, and discovering moons around Pluto. Hence Statement 3 is correct.
  • The telescope is the result of an international collaboration between NASA, the European Space Agency (ESA) and the Canadian Space Agency.  Hence Statement 4 is not correct.
Q3. ___________ was one of the most well renowned revolutionary leaders of the Indian National 
Movement. He passed the ICS examination securing the 11th rank out of 250 candidates and 
joined King’s College for the training but had himself disqualified for an exam by arriving 
deliberately late as he had no interest in the ICS. He joined the Baroda service in 1893. 
He also did jobs like teaching grammar and composing speeches for the Maharaja of Gaekwad. 
In 1905, he started an English newspaper called Bande Mataram.

Who is ‘he’ in this above passage?

  1. Rash Behari Bose
  2. Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
  3. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
  4. Jatindranath Mukherjee
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation: 

About Sri Aurobindo Ghosh

  • He was a well-known and significant figure in the history of Indian revival and Indian nationalism.
  • As a revolutionary leader, he was lured to the Indian liberation struggle.
  • He passed the Indian Civil Service (ICS) test, finishing 11th out of 250 applicants.
  • He enrolled at King’s College for training but disqualified himself from a test by coming late on purpose since he had no interest in the ICS.
  • In 1897, he began teaching French at Baroda College while simultaneously learning Sanskrit and Bengali.
  • In 1902, he helped form the Anushilan Samiti of Calcutta by attending Congress sessions.
Q4. Who amongst the following decides on the election schedule for the state assembly 
elections?
  1. Election Commission of India
  2. State Election Commission
  3. Governor in consultation with State Election Commission
  4. President of India
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation

  • The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes in India. 
  • The body administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies in India, and the offices of the President and Vice President in the country.
  • Hence Statement 1 is correct.
Q5. Consider the following statements:
  1. The Petroleum and Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
  2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
  3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2019]

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation

  • The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act of 2006 established the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB).  TRAI is India’s first independent regulator.  Hence Statement 1 is not correct.
  • PNGRB is responsible for ensuring competitive gas markets. Hence Statement 2 is correct.
  • To settle conflicts, the PNGRB will have the same authority as a civil court. The Appellate Tribunal created under Section 110 of the Electricity Act of 2003 (36 of 2003) serves as the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act of 2006.  Hence Statement 3 is correct.

I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

  1. List out the challenges faced by the AYUSH system with respect to its integration with the mainstream healthcare framework. Suggest ways to overcome such challenges. (250 words; 15 marks); GS II (Health)
  2. ‘One nation, One language’ has always been a flawed idea with respect to India. Do you agree? Discuss. (250 words; 15 marks); GS I (Culture)

Read the previous CNA here.

CNA 25 Dec 2021:- Download PDF Here

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