21 May 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

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CNA 21 May 2022:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
C. GS 3 Related
ECONOMY
1. FDI inflow ‘highest ever’ at $83.57 bn
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. The neighbourhood in turmoil, lessons for India
SECURITY
1. Talking Peace, negotiating with the Maoists
F. Prelims Facts
G. Tidbits
1. Welfare schemes should reach every beneficiary, urges Modi
2. Govt. to roll out ‘Tour of Duty’ recruitment in Army
3. Norms eased for GM crop research
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

  • The Prime Minister spoke about reaching a “saturation” point in the implementation of welfare schemes.
  • The PM said that the saturation point must not only be a statistical aim but also address the challenges of discrimination, nepotism, appeasement and corruption.
  • He further said that this aim was conveyed during his Independence Day when he spoke about reaching out to hundred percent labharthis or beneficiaries.

2. Govt. to roll out ‘Tour of Duty’ recruitment in Army

  • The government is planning to introduce a Tour of Duty (ToD), for the short term recruitment of jawans into the three Services of the armed forces for a period of four years which is said to be a first-of-its-kind model.
  • Four years will include six months of training and three-and-a-half years of service and those selected under ToD would get salary and benefits almost at par with regular personnel. 
  • This move is said to cut down the funds used for pay and pensions and would free up funds for defence modernisation.

3. Norms eased for GM crop research

  • The Department of Biotechnology (DBT) has notified “Guidelines for Safety Assessment of Genome Edited Plants, 2022” intended to ease the norms for research into genetically modified (GM) crops and address the challenges of using foreign genes to change crops profile.
  • The guidelines exempt researchers who use gene-editing technology to modify the genome of the plant from seeking approvals from the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC).
    • The GEAC evaluates research into GM plants and recommends, or disapproves, their release into farmer fields and the final decision is taken by the Environment Minister and States where such plants are cultivated. 
  • The GM plants which require scrutiny are those with transgenic technology (genes induced from a different species into a plant). 
    • Example: BT-cotton, where a gene from soil bacterium is introduced to protect it from pests.
    • The major cause of concern is regarding the spreading of these genes to other plants.
  • Genome editing uses technologies that allow genetic material to be added, removed, or altered at particular locations in the genome. CRISPR-Cas9 is the most famous genome editing technique.

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. CRISPR-Cas9 Gene Editing tool can be used in developing which of the following 
applications? (Level – Difficult)
  1. Allergy-free foods
  2. Greener fuels
  3. Eradicating pests

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation: 

  • CRISPR stands for Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats. It is a component of bacterial immune systems that can cut DNA and has been repurposed as a gene-editing tool.
  • CRISPR-Cas9 Gene Editing tool can be applied in the development of cell and gene therapies, diagnostics, and in the field of agriculture and bioenergy.
Q2. Consider the following statements: (Level – Medium)
  1. The first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras.
  2. Lord Mayo’s Resolution of 1870 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government.
  3. An individual should be of at least 25 years old to contest in municipal elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is correct, the first municipal corporation in India was set up at Madras in 1687-88. 
  • Statement 2 is not correct, Lord Ripon’s Resolution of 1882 has been hailed as the ‘Magna Carta’ of local self-government. 
    • Ripon is also called the father of local-self government in India. 
  • Statement 3 is not correct, Minimum age for contesting in municipal elections institutions is twenty-one years.
Q3. With respect to retinoblastoma, which of the following statements is/are 
incorrect? (Level – Medium)
  1. It is an eye cancer that begins in the retina and affects young children only.
  2. In children with retinoblastoma, the disease affects only one eye.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation: 

  • Statement 1 is not correct, Retinoblastoma is an eye cancer that begins in the retina, it mostly affects young children, but can rarely occur in adults. 
  • Statement 2 is not correct, Retinoblastoma may occur in one or both eyes.
Q4. Nagorno-Karabakh is a territorial conflict between (Level – Easy)
  1. Greece and Turkey
  2. Armenia and Azerbaijan
  3. Iraq and Kuwait
  4. Israel and Palestine
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Nagorno-Karabakh is a landlocked mountainous region in the South Caucasus. 
  • It is a forested region and geographically lies within the boundary of Azerbaijan.
  • It is a disputed territory between Azerbaijan and Armenia.
Q5. What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January 1950?  
(Level – Easy) [UPSC 2021]
  1. A Democratic Republic
  2. A Sovereign Democratic Republic
  3. A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
  4. A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • The original Preamble, adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1950, declared India a “Sovereign Democratic Republic”.
  • The words “Socialist” and “Secular” were inserted by the 42nd Amendment of 1976.
  • The Preamble now defines India’s constitutional status as “Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic”.

I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

  1. How is Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) different as compared to Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI)? Elaborate on the multiple routes through which FDI is permitted in India with examples. (250 words; 15 marks) (GS III – Economics)
  2. A more conciliatory approach towards our neighbourhood has always paid more dividends for India as compared to a confrontational approach. Discuss. (250 words; 15 marks) (GS II – International Relations)

Read the previous CNA here.

CNA 21 May 2022:- Download PDF Here

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