11 Sep 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

A. GS 1 Related
WORLD AND INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
1. Cloudburst Forecast in India
B. GS 2 Related
SOCIAL JUSTICE
1. New Adoption Rules
C. GS 3 Related
BIODIVERSITY AND ENVIRONMENT
1. Desert Dust and Air Quality
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. What is the G7 planning on Russian oil?
SOCIAL JUSTICE
1. How does a COVID nasal vaccine work?
2. Risk from rabies
F. Prelims Facts
1. Exercise Parvat Prahar
G. Tidbits
1. Railways and Detonators
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

A. GS 1 Related

B. GS 2 Related

Category: SOCIAL JUSTICE

1. New Adoption Rules

Syllabus: Performance of the schemes; mechanisms, laws, institutions and Bodies constituted for the protection and betterment of vulnerable sections

Mains:  Provisions of existing laws on adoption

Context: Recent changes in adoption rules have resulted in complications and delay in the adoption process in India. 

Introduction:

• Nearly 3,500 adoptions are completed every year in India.
• In July 2021, Parliament of India passed the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, 2021 which empowers District Magistrates to give adoption orders. 

Issue with amended rules:

• The 2021 amendments include authorising District Magistrate including Additional District Magistrate to issue adoption orders under Section 61 of the JJ Act, in order to ensure speedy disposal of cases and enhance accountability. 
• It has been made by the Central Adoption Resource Authority and has been notified by the Union Woman and Child Development Ministry.
• Amendments  also stated that “all the cases pertaining to adoption matters pending before the Court shall stand transferred to the District Magistrate from the date of commencement of these rules.”
• The amendments came into effect from September 1,2021.
• But the confusion over the implementation of these new rules that require transfer of adoption petitions from courts to District Magistrates could lead to further delays in a long and arduous procedure. 
• New rules have resulted in confusion in the entire system about the requirement to transfer the cases from courts to DMs as well as the status of the court orders passed on or after September 1 after several months of court proceedings. 
• The regulations detailing the procedure to be followed by the DMs as well as defining the roles of various agencies and authorities involved too are yet to be notified. 

Other changes made in the Amendment:

• The District Magistrates have been further empowered to ensure its smooth implementation, as well as garner synergized efforts in favour of children in distress conditions.

• As per the amended provisions of the Act, any Child Care Institution shall be registered after considering the recommendations of the District Magistrate.
  • The DM shall independently evaluate the functioning of District Child Protection Units, Child Welfare Committees, Juvenile Justice Boards, Specialised Juvenile Police Units, Child Care Institutions, etc.
• The eligibility parameters for appointment of Child Welfare Committee (CWC) members have been redefined. Disqualification criteria for the same have also been introduced.
• It has been decided that offences where the maximum sentence is more than 7 years imprisonment but no minimum sentence has been prescribed or minimum sentence of less than 7 years is provided, shall be treated as serious offences within this Act.

Read more on Child Protection in India

Nut Graf: It is necessary to review the laws that govern the adoption process  in order to streamline it. Amended laws should  adopt an inclusive strategy that prioritises the needs of the children and provide an equivalent opportunity for the parents to understand the procedures.

C. GS 3 Related

Category: BIODIVERSITY AND ENVIRONMENT

1. Desert Dust and Air Quality

Syllabus: Environmental Pollution & Degradation

Mains: Impact of Desert Dust on Air Quality

Context: Researchers at the Central University of Rajasthan (CUoR) have started studying the impact of desert dust and emissions by human activity on air quality and climate change, under a project funded by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). 

Introduction:

• Central University of Rajasthan is the first academic institution to get a research grant from ISRO.
• The research falls within the domain of atmospheric chemistry. 
• The objective of the research is to look for remedies to curb the menace of degrading air quality in the State by deploying new instruments and conducting field studies. 

Desert Dust:

‘Desert dust’ is the mixture of particulate matter (PM) emitted from the surface of arid and semi-arid regions. Due to the aridic nature of these regions, soils are poor, and therefore this PM is mostly made up of mineral matter.Increase of PM in the receptor regions during dust outbreaks might be due not only to desert dust itself but also to other anthropogenic and natural (e.g. sea salt) PM.

Key Details of the Project:

• The project involves measuring the atmospheric `trace gases’ , present in small amounts, influenced by dominance of desert dust and natural and anthropogenic emissions. 
• It studies the changes in atmospheric chemistry and recommends measures to improve the quality of air for both flora and fauna.

Significance of the study:

• The Indo-Gangetic Plains have high levels of anthropogenic emissions and the gases, smoke and fog travel long distances, including Rajasthan, influencing the air quality and health at far-off places. 
• The study helps in comparing emissions brought in from Delhi and Indo-Gangetic Plain and the local emission of trace gases.
• Study also helps in identifying the reaction mechanisms as a result of loss of gases through deposition and interaction between gases and aerosols.

Nut Graf: Dust outbreaks have a direct effect on air quality by increasing the particulate concentrations. ISRO is funding a project to establish a state-of-the-art atmospheric chemistry laboratory in Central University of Rajasthan to study varied influences of factors such as vehicular emissions and desert dust.

D. GS 4 Related

Nothing here for today!!!

Category: SOCIAL JUSTICE

1. How does a COVID nasal vaccine work?

Syllabus: Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health

Mains: Nasal vaccine.

Context:  The Central Drugs Standard Control Organisation has approved Bharat Biotech’s nasal vaccine for primary immunization against COVID-19 in the 18-plus age group.

Details:

• It is approved for restricted use in the situation of emergencies. 
• It is a ChAd36-SARS-CoV-S recombinant vaccine that can be nasally administered.
• The vaccine is a powerful potential tool to fight the COVID-19 virus and prevent further infections.

For more information on the nasal vaccine read here: 07 Sep 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

Nasal Vaccine:

• A nasal vaccine is administered either through the nose or mouth. It works on the mucosal lining thereby triggering an immune response at the entry points of the virus. 
• Therefore, it prevents the infection right at the initial point further blocking its spread. This is called sterilizing immunity in scientific terms, implying that the virus is effectively prevented from causing infection to the host.
• It was explained in the journal Nature, that although the current  COVID-19 vaccines have reduced the severity of the disease and prevented hospitalization, it is incapable to block mild illness and transmission. 
  • This is because they are injected into the muscle. These antibodies/cells circulate in the bloodstream but are not present at desired levels in the nose and lungs to provide rapid protection. Moreover, during the time of circulation, the virus can spread further, and the infected person might get ill.
• Potential of Nasal Vaccine:
  • The efficiency of the vaccine is still unclear and is dependent on the further efficacy of the study.
  • Both Bharat Biotech and CanSino (a Chinese drug maker) have announced the accomplishment of successful trials, but have not released data yet.
  • The article released by the University of Washington has made the following observations:
    • The two clinical trials of the vaccine were conducted in India. 
    • The phase 3 trial was conducted on nearly  3,100 unvaccinated people and a booster trial with about 875  vaccinated individuals showed safe, effective, and positive results.

Related Links: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis. May 3rd, 2022 CNA. Download PDF

Mission COVID Suraksha – Indian COVID-19 Vaccine Development Mission

mRNA Vaccine [Messenger RNA Vaccine]: Overview, Mechanism and Advantage

Nut Graf: The prompt publication of trials and a speedy rollout of a nasal vaccine can be of extreme help in the fight against the virus. It can also prove to be a breakthrough in the vaccination of children against the novel virus. However, its usage for children is yet to be approved. 

2. Risk from rabies

Syllabus: Issues relating to development and management of Social Sector/Services relating to Health

Mains: Rabies.

Context:  The death of a 12-year-old girl in Kerala from rabies

Details:

• Rabies is caused by a family of viruses known as lyssavirus, which is found in various mammals including cats and crocodiles. However, it is most likely to spread in humans through pets like infected dogs/cats.
• Rabies virus is known to target the central nervous system of the host and is about hundred percent fatal if the infection spreads. 
• Despite being deadly, the rabies virus’ spread is slow and can take several weeks before becoming fatal encephalitis. Therefore, administering a vaccine, even after being bitten by a rabid animal, is adequately effective. 
  • A shot of rabies immunoglobulin and the consequent four-week course of anti-rabies vaccine guarantees prevention. 
  • The detailed regimen is that the first dose should be given on the same day as the immunoglobulin vaccination. This should be followed by vaccinations on the third, seventh and fourteenth day. 
  • There is no single-shot rabies vaccine that can offer permanent immunity against the disease.

Description about the vaccine:

• The vaccine comprises of inactivated virus which induces the host to produce antibodies. These antibodies in turn neutralizes the live virus of infection.
• Ways to administer rabies vaccine:
  •  Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP): This is given to patients who have been bitten by infected (suspected) animals. The vaccines are administered through the muscles/skin. 
  • Pre Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP): The vaccine can also be administered to persons who are at a high risk of infection like veterinarians. A person that has been vaccinated with PrEP does not require an immunoglobulin injection in case of any future animal bite. However, the WHO doesn’t recommend PrEP as a general preventive measure.

Status of Rabies vaccine in India:

• At present, there are six types of rabies vaccines approved in India, as reported by the Health Ministry. 
• They are made of inactivated viruses and are safe and efficacious.
• The Rabies vaccines are provided free of cost in government-run dispensaries. 
• But it is often reported that hospitals lack vaccines. Moreover, the awareness about vaccines and treatment is not at the desired level in India. 
• The shortage had been reported in multiple states like Karnataka, Punjab, Haryana, and West Bengal. 
• The Government has reported that during the span of 2016 to 18, approximately 300 rabies deaths were reported in India. 
• The WHO also suggests that India is endemic to rabies and accounts for nearly 36% of the world’s deaths. 
• According to an anonymous source, Rabies causes Twenty thousand deaths annually. Moreover, 30-60% of reported rabies cases and deaths belong to the age cohort of 0 to 15 years.

The future course of action:

• India has set the target of elimination by 2030. 
• The elimination also requires the extensive vaccination of dogs as they are responsible for approximately 99% of all rabies infections.
• In its ‘National Action for Plan — Rabies Elimination’ government aims to vaccinate at least seventy percent of all dogs in specific geographical areas annually. This would continue for three years. At this rate of building herd immunity, it is expected to eliminate the infection in eight years.

Related Links:

UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis. March 15th, 2020 CNA Download PDF

Definition, Types. How Zoonotic Diseases Spread? UPSC Current Affairs.

Nut Graf: The recent incident of rabies-related death has once again highlighted the severity of the rabies infection that is responsible for a large number of deaths in India. With proper implementation of the existing plan and the coordinated efforts of the centre and state, the menace of rabies infection can be tackled, ultimately eliminating it in the coming years. 

F. Prelims Facts

1. Exercise Parvat Prahar

Syllabus:  Various Security Forces & Agencies & Their Mandate

Prelims: Military Exercise

Context: Recently, Army chief General Manoj Pande visited the Ladakh sector to review Exercise Parvat Prahar.

Key Details:

• The exercise saw the deployment of all new major inductions of the Army.
• The exercise was held in the Ladakh plateau at an altitude of 14,000 feet.
• The army used newly inducted all-terrain vehicles transported by Chinook heavy lift helicopters and K9-Vajra howitzers, among others. 
• The exercise featured a display of operational capabilities by artillery guns and other key weapon systems. 
• The exercise comes as India and China are undertaking disengagement from Patrolling Point-15 in eastern Ladakh.

G. Tidbits

1. Railways and Detonators

• The Indian Railways is considering withdrawing a decades-old policy of guards protecting the rear of the train stopped at home signal using explosives to prevent a collision. 

Working of a railway detonator:

• Railway detonator was invented in 1841 by English inventor Edward Alfred Cowper.
• It is a coin-sized device that is used as a loud warning signal to train drivers which is placed on the top of the rail, usually secured with two lead straps, one on each side. 
• When the wheel of the train passes over, it explodes, emitting a loud bang.

Detonators in Indian Railways:

• Passenger and freight trains being stopped at the home signal ahead of railway stations is a usual practice owing to operational reasons like the availability of line for the incoming train. 
• However, when the detention of such trains exceeds 15 minutes, the general rules for Indian Railways prescribe for the guard to protect the rear of the train from any possible collision by a train approaching from behind. 
• The guard is duty-bound to place detonators at certain distances that will trigger multiple minor explosions with a loud noise when a train passes on them giving an alert to the loco pilot of obstruction ahead.

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements with regards to Electric vehicles: 
(Level – Medium)

1. Hydrogen is a source of energy, and not an energy carrier.
2. A fuel cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy using oxidizing agents through an oxidation-reduction reaction.
3. Since fuel cell vehicles use electricity to run, they are considered EVs.

Choose the correct code:

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only 
3. 1 & 3 only
4. All of the above

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

• Statement 01 is incorrect, Hydrogen is an energy carrier, not an energy source and can deliver or store a tremendous amount of energy. Hydrogen can be used in fuel cells to generate electricity, or power and heat.
• Statement 02 is correct, A fuel cell is an electrochemical cell that converts the chemical energy of a fuel (often hydrogen) and an oxidizing agent (often oxygen) into electricity through a pair of redox reactions.
• Statement 03 is correct, Fuel Cell Vehicles use a propulsion system similar to that of electric vehicles, where energy stored as hydrogen is converted to electricity by the fuel cell.

Q2. Consider the following statements with respect to rubber and rubber plantations: 
(Level – Difficult)

1. Natural rubber is preferred over synthetic rubber due to its high tensile strength and vibration dampening properties, along with tear resistance.
2. According to FAOStat (Food and Agricultural Organisation Corporate Statistical Database) of 2019, Thailand is the largest Producer of Rubber in the World followed by Indonesia, Malaysia, India, China etc.
3. Karnataka is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.

Choose the correct code:

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. All of the above

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Statement 01 is correct, Natural rubber is known for its properties as a strong, flexible and heat-resistant material used to create latex products. It is preferred over synthetic rubber due to its high tensile strength and vibration dampening properties, along with tear resistance.
• Statement 02 is correct, Thailand is the largest Producer of Rubber in the World followed by Indonesia, Malaysia, India, China etc.

Image Source: The science Agriculture

• Statement 03 is incorrect, India’s natural rubber production (NR) increased to a nine-year high in the 2021-22 fiscal. Kerala is the largest producer of natural rubber in India.

Q3. Consider the following statements with regards to the Cooperatives in India: 
(Level – Easy)

1. The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 added a new Part IXB right after Part IXA (Municipals) regarding the cooperatives working in India.
2. The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution.
3. A new Article 39B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”.

Choose the correct code:

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. All of the above

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

• Statement 01 is correct, The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 provides constitutional status and protection to the co-operative societies.
  • It added Part IXB regarding cooperative working in India  right after Part IXA.
• Statement 02 is correct, The word “cooperatives” was added after “unions and associations” in Article 19(1)(c) under Part III of the Constitution.
• Statement 03 is incorrect,  A new Article 43B was added in the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) regarding the “promotion of cooperative societies”.

Read more on Cooperatives in India

Q4. Consider the following statements with regards to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre: 
(Level – Easy)

1. Because of the massacre, Nobel laureate Rabindranath Tagore renounced the Nobel prize that he had received in 1913.
2. The then government of India ordered an investigation of the incident (the Hunter Commission), which in 1920 censured Dyer for his actions and ordered him to resign from the military.
3. The Rowlatt Act 1919 was passed on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt.

Choose the correct code:

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. All of the above

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

•  Statement 01 is incorrect, Rabindranath Tagore renounced his knighthood in protest against the massacre. He was the first Indian to receive this award in 1915 for his contribution to literature.
• Statement 02 is correct, The government of India formed a commission called the Hunter Commission to inquire into the massacre and other events in Punjab. It was officially called ‘Disorders Inquiry Committee’. 
  • The commission found that Colonel Reginald Dyer was guilty of ‘a mistaken notion of duty’. He was relieved of his command although no penal or disciplinary action was recommended. 
• Statement 03 is correct, The Rowlatt Act was passed by the British government to increase their grip on power over the common folk. This law was passed in March 1919 by the Imperial Legislative Council based on the report of Justice S.A.T. Rowlatt’s committee of 1918.

Q5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/
differences between LTE (Long Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term 
Evolution)? (Level – Easy) (CSE Prelims-2019)

1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: d

Explanation:

• Statement 01 is incorrect, LTE stands for Long Term Evolution. It is a model for high-speed data communication systems, also called 4G. This means you can utilise internet service at the 4G speed. It has the capacity to provide a download speed of 100 Mbps and an uploading speed of 50 Mbps.
  • VoLTE stands for Voice over Long Term Evolution. Like LTE, it also holds 4G networks, and you can enjoy the high-speed internet service with it. Even with VoLTE, you can enjoy voice calling with data service.
• Statement 02 is incorrect, under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks. 
• • VoLTE is both data and voice technology. Basically VoLTE systems convert voice into the data stream, which is then transmitted using the data connection.

I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions

1. India accounts for approximately 20,000 rabies-related human deaths each year out of the 59,000 global deaths. In the light of the statement, explain measures taken by the government and the major impediments in rabies elimination. (10 Marks, 150 Words) (GS-2; Health)
2. How will imposing a price cap on oil purchases from Russia help? Will it impact India? Discuss. (10 Marks, 150 Words) (GS-2; International Relations)