07 Jun 2022: UPSC Exam Comprehensive News Analysis

14 May

CNA 07 June 2022:- Download PDF Here

TABLE OF CONTENTS

A. GS 1 Related
B. GS 2 Related
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. The debates around the Surrogacy Act
2. The provisions of the withdrawn draft on social media regulations
C. GS 3 Related
D. GS 4 Related
E. Editorials
POLITY AND GOVERNANCE
1. Taking steps to ensure sex workers’ rights
INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS
1. A silver moment to propel a Bay of Bengal dream
EDUCATION
1. The need for digital cooperation
F. Prelims Facts
1. Strategic missile Agni-4 successfully test-fired
G. Tidbits
1. ‘Policy certainty, transparency critical for asset monetisation’
2. Bad bank to kick off NPA takeover in July: FinMin
H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions
I. UPSC Mains Practice Questions
FIP Magazine

2. The provisions of the withdrawn draft on social media regulations

Syllabus: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation.

Prelims: Information Technology Rules, 2021

Mains: Critical analysis of Information Technology Rules, 2021

Context: Recently, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) put out a draft proposal, seeking comments from the general public on a set of proposed amendments to the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021. 

What are the Information Technology Rules, 2021?

  • The IT Rules (2021) mandate social media platforms to exercise greater diligence with respect to the content on their platforms. 
  • They are required to establish a grievance redressal mechanism and remove unlawful and unfitting content within stipulated time frames.
  • The grievance officer of the platform’s redressal mechanism is responsible for receiving and resolving complaints of the users. 
  • Content portraying an individual in full or partial nudity, in a sexual act or impersonating some other individual in the act (using morphed photos) is required to be removed within 24 hours of receiving the complaint. Its access and spread by any other means on the platform should also be disabled. 
  • Know more about the Information Technology Rules, 2021.

What changes were proposed in the withdrawn draft?

  • The draft proposed an additional level of oversight, namely, the ‘Grievance Appellate Committee’, functioning over and above the intermediary’s grievance redressal officer. 
  • In case a user is not satisfied with the resolution provided by the intermediary, she/he can appeal against the decision at the appellate level rather than going directly to court. 
  • However, this did not take away the user’s right to appeal in any other court. 
  • The draft stipulated that all orders of this appellate must be complied with. 
  • Additionally, the draft put forth the obligation that all social media intermediaries resolve all complaints within 72 hours of reporting. 
  • Further, a sub-clause suggested the appellate court dispose of such cases within thirty days furthering the probability of hasty decisions.

Legal Challenges:

  • Both Bombay and Madras High Courts stayed the imposition of sub-clauses 1 and 3 of Rule 9 of the legislative guidelines in August and September of the previous year, respectively. The two sub-clauses dealt with the ‘Code of Ethics’ for online publishers dealing with news and current affairs content and/or curated content. 
  • The sub-clauses had stated that the entities subscribed to a three-tier mechanism in dealing with grievances (relevant to their platform) so as to adhere to their code. 
  • This entails self-regulation by the publishers (level I), by self-regulating bodies of the publishers (level II) and finally, an oversight mechanism by the Central Govt (level III).
Nut Graf
The new IT Rules, 2021, are a welcome step toward putting information, users and intermediaries in the form of social media on the same platform. Because social media platforms can be used to ask questions and receive criticism, they are an important tool that should be used wisely.

G. Tidbits

1. ‘Policy certainty, transparency critical for asset monetisation’

  • The Chief Economic Advisor (CEA) said policy stability and transparency were critical to ensuring the success of the government’s asset monetisation effort. 
  • He flagged the hurdles to making a switch away from fossil fuels and highlighted the constraints, both fiscal and in terms of supply of raw materials like metals and minerals, to meeting this key global challenge.
  • The CEA also emphasized the need for greater investments in metals and minerals for renewable energy technologies.

2. Bad bank to kick off NPA takeover in July: FinMin

  • The National Asset Reconstruction Company Ltd. (NARCL), set up to take over large bad loans of more than ₹500 crore from banks, is about to pick up the first set of such non-performing assets (NPAs).
  • The NARCL, which will acquire the bad loans from banks, and the India Debt Resolution Company Ltd. have secured the necessary approvals and permissions.
  • The NARCL, announced in the Budget for 2021-22, is intended to resolve stressed loans of ₹2 lakh crore.

H. UPSC Prelims Practice Questions

Q1. Which of the following best describes the newly launched Jan Samarth Portal? 
[Level: Medium]
  1. It is meant to collect feedback from the people on the implementation of Union government schemes.
  2. It is a portal to drive people’s participation in the policy formulation process.
  3. It is a one stop digital portal linking government credit schemes.
  4. It is a portal to lodge complaints against errant public officials.
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

Jan Samarth Portal is a one-stop digital portal linking government credit schemes. It is a first of its kind platform which directly connects beneficiaries to lenders. The main purpose of the portal is to encourage inclusive growth and development of various sectors by guiding and providing them with the right type of government benefits through simple and easy digital processes. The portal ensures end-to-end coverage of all the linked schemes.

Hence C is the correct option.

Q2. Which of the following statements is/are correct? [Level: Medium]
  1. UAE figures among India’s top three global trade partners.
  2. Saudi Arabia is India’s topmost oil supplier globally.
  3. Among the Gulf countries, UAE houses the highest number of Overseas Indians.

Options:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: c

Explanation:

  • India has emerged as Dubai’s second-biggest trading partner after China with the overall volume in the first half of 2021. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • The United States overtook Saudi Arabia as India’s second-biggest oil supplier after Iraq in 2021. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The UAE tops the list in the region with over 3.4 million Indians, followed by Saudi Arabia (2.6 million) and Kuwait (1 million), as per data from the ministry of external affairs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
Q3. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect with respect to India’s 
international cooperation with respect to disability? [Level: Difficult]
  1. India has signed the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities but is yet to ratify it.
  2. India is a Party to the Incheon Strategy “To make the Right Real” for Persons with Disabilities in Asia and the Pacific Region.

Options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: a

Explanation:

  • The UN Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities is an international human rights treaty dealing with the rights of disabled people.
  • India ratified the UNCRPD in October 2007. The Parliament enacted the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 with a view to fulfilling the obligations under the UNCRPD. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
  • Incheon Strategy has been adopted to achieve the goals mentioned in UN Convention for Rights of Persons with Disabilities.India is a Party to the Incheon Strategy “To make the Right Real” for Persons with Disabilities in Asia and Pacific Region. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Q4. Consider the following pairs of valleys and their associated states. [Level: Difficult]

            Valley                    State

  1. Yankti kuti           Uttarakhand
  2. Yumthang               Nagaland
  3. Dzukou                    Mizoram
  4. Chamba             Himachal Pradesh

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. Only one pair
  2. Only two pairs
  3. Only three pairs
  4. All four pairs
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

  • Yanti Kuti Valley is a Himalayan valley situated in the Pithoragarh District, Kumaon division of the Uttarakhand state of India. Hence pair 1 is correct.
  • The Yumthang Valley is a nature sanctuary with river, hot springs, yaks and grazing pasture on rolling meadows surrounded by the Himalayan mountains in  Sikkim state in India. Hence pair 2 is incorrect.
  • The Dzüko Valley is a valley located at the borders of the states of Nagaland and Manipur in Northeast India.   Hence pair 3 is incorrect.
  • Chamba is a town in the Chamba district in the Indian state of Himachal Pradesh.  Hence pair 4 is correct.
Q5. The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? 
[Level: Medium, UPSC 2019]
  1. Increase in the cash reserve ratio
  2. Increase in the banking habit of the population
  3. Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
  4. Increase in the population of the country
CHECK ANSWERS:-

Answer: b

Explanation:

The amount of money created by commercial banks for a given fixed amount of base money and reserve ratio is referred to as the money multiplier. A higher cash reserve ratio prevents banks from lending more money and lowers the money multiplier. An increase in the population’s banking habits will increase lending, resulting in more deposits in the banking system and thus increasing the money multiplier.

Hence option B is correct.

CNA 07 June 2022:- Download PDF Here

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