ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2018

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2018 contains the answers to the 2018 question paper. These answers will help students to get a better way of expressing their answers in the exam. Learning this skill will add a bonus point to students exam preparation which will directly impact their scores in the exams. For students convenience, answers are provided along with the marking scheme. This will provide students with an idea of how much to write in the paper depending upon the mark allocation of the question.

The ICSE Class 10 History and Civics 2018 exam was conducted on 7th March 2018. The exam started at 11 am and students were allotted 2 hours of time duration to finish the paper. Students can download the ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2018 PDF from the link below.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 2018

Download ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2018 PDF

Students can have a look at the ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2018 below:


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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics (H.C.G – Paper 1) Question Paper 2018 With Solution

Question 1:

(a) Name the bill that cannot originate in the Rajya Sabha.

(b) What is meant by the term ‘quorum’?

(c) What is the maximum gap allowed between the two parliamentary sessions?

(d) Who administers the oath of office to the Council of Ministers?

(e) What is an Ordinance?

(f) State any one reason why the President is elected indirectly.

(g) State any one administrative function of the Cabinet.

(h) Name any two writs issued by the Supreme Court.

(i) Name the highest criminal court in a district.

(j) What is meant by Lok Adalats?


(a) Money Bill

(b) A quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present before a meeting is allowed to begin. The quorum to constitute a meeting of the House is one-tenth of the total strength of the House.

(c) Maximum 6 months / less than six months / Not more than six months. (Any one point)

(d) President

(e) When Parliament is not in session or emergency, an Ordinance is used. It is a temporary law/an order issued by the President. (Any one point)

(f) Become a rival center of power to the Council of ministers, would be against the parliamentary system, would become a nominee of the ruling party and would not represent the constituent states of the union, His indirect election by Electoral college makes the President the elected representative of the whole nation. He is the nominal head. The real power lies in the hands of Prime Minister and the parliament. Election to be quiet and dignified affair. Loss of time, energy and money. (Any one point)

(g) (i) The Cabinet is a policy framing body, after it determines on a policy, the appropriate

Ministry like Ministry of Agriculture or Civil Aviation and others carries it out. Each

Ministry or Department faithfully follows the directives of the Cabinet.

(ii) The President makes all major appointments with the aid and advice of the Ministers. Appointment of the Attorney-General of India, the Governor of a State, the Chief Election

Commissioner, the Election Commissioners. Implementation and coordination policy (Any one point)

(h) Habeas corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo- warranto. (Any two points)

(i) Sessions Court/Court of Session Judge

(j) People’s Court

Question 2:

(a) Mention any two economic factors responsible for the growth of nationalism in India.

(b) Name the two Presidents under whom the first two sessions of the Indian National

Congress were held.

(c) Name the nationalist who said, ‘Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it’. State any

one of his contributions to the National Movement.

(d) State any two objectives of the Muslim League.

(e) State any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930.

(f) Name the last Viceroy of India. State any one of the provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947.

(g) Give any two similarities between the ideologies of Nazism and Fascism.

(h) Name the countries that formed the Axis Bloc, during World War II.

(i) Give the full form of UNESCO.

(j) State any two principles of ‘Panchsheel’ in the Non-Aligned Movement.


(a) Economic Exploitation

(i) Peasants: The government took away a large part of their produce.

(ii) British economic policies were against the interests of Indian trade and industry.

(iii) Working class were exploited by the factory owners.

(iv) Educated Indians were denied promotions and employment.

(v) Did nothing to promote the welfare of the people

(vi) Heavy duties on Indian Goods

(vii) India was reduced to an agricultural glory of the British. (Any two points)

(b) (i) W.C. Banerjee

(ii) Dadabhai Naroji

(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Close contact with masses, demand for swaraj inculcate courage, self defense, patriotism by organizing Akharas & lathi clubs, started Ganapati and Shivaji festivals, two newspapers- Maratha and kesari, two books- Gita Rahasya and the Artic Home of the Vedas. Establish Home Rule league in 1916, forerunner of Mahatma Gandhi, preached the ideas of Swadeshi, Boycott and Prohibition. His role in the anti-partition movement. (Any two points)

(d) To promote among the Indian Muslim support for British rule, to remove misconceptions between the British government in relation to Indian Muslims, to protect and advance the political rights and interests of the Muslims, to represent the needs and aspirations to the government in mild and moderate way. To prevent the rise of feelings of hostility between the Muslims and other communities. (Two points)

(e) Simon Commission, Declaration of Poorna swaraj at Lahore session (1929), Nehru report, Viceroy declaration, Gandhi’s eleven demands, Salt satyagraha (Two points)

(f) Lord Mountbatten

1. Two new Dominions.

2. Provisions of Partition

3. Governor general for each dominion

4. Constituent assemblies to serve as central legislatives.

5. End of jurisdiction of the Pre-Parliament.

6. Princely states

7. Treaties and Agreements

8. Division of the army and the Assets.

9. Bringing the act into operation.

10. Office of secretary of state of interest of existing officers. (Any two points)

(g) Faith in Totalitarian rule (dictatorship), to despise democracy, communism, socialism, internationalism. One party one Leader, Belief in aggressive nationalism, imperialism, war, policy of expansion, believe in supremacy of state rather than Individual use of force. Anti Intellectualism, belief in racial supremacy. (Any two points)

(h) Germany, Italy, Japan (Berlin-Rome-Tokyo axis) (Three countries)

(i) UNESCO – United Nations Educational, Scientific, Cultural organization.

(j) (i) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.

(ii) Mutual non-aggression

(iii) Equality for mutual benefit.

(iv) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty.

(v) Peaceful co-existence. (Any two points)

PART II (50 Marks)

Question 3: With reference to the Union Parliament, answer the following questions:

(a) How many members may be nominated to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha? Give one reason as to why they may be nominated to the Lok Sabha.

(b) Mention any three qualifications required for a member to be elected to the Lok Sabha.

(c) What is meant by the term ‘Session’? Name the three Sessions of the Union Parliament.


(a) Two to Lok Sabha from the Anglo- Indian community, Twelve to Rajya Sabha of those who have special knowledge and practical experience in the fields of literature, art, science/ social service.

Two from the Anglo-Indian Community if they are not adequately represented.

(b) (i) A citizen of India

(ii) Must not be less than 25 years of age.

(iii) Must not hold an office of profit.

(iv) Should not be an insolvent. Unsound mind, criminal (Any three points)

(c) Sessions: The President summons each house of Parliament when the members meet for

deliberations. Normally there are three sessions in the year:

Budget Session (February – May)

Monsoon Session (July – August)

Winter Session (November – December)

Question 4: The President and the Vice-President are part of the Union Executive.

In this context, answer the following questions:

(a) State any three qualifications required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice-President of India.

(b) State the three functions of the Vice-President.

(c) Explain briefly any two Legislative and any two Executive powers of the President.


(a) A person is eligible for election as Vice-President if he:

(i) is a citizen of India

(ii) is not less than 35 years of age.

(iii) is qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha

(iv) must not hold any office of profit either under Union Government or under State Government. (Any three points)

(b) (i) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, acts as the Ex- Officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, he

regulates debates and proceedings of the house.

(ii) Decides the orders of speech admissibility of resolution or of question suspend or adjourn the house in case of grave disorder.

(iii)Takes over the office of the President in case of the president’s death, resignation or

removal. (Three points)

(c) Legislative power: Addresses Sessions of Parliament, Message to Parliament, summons and prorogue the house, dissolve the Lok Sabha, Nomination of Members (2 Lok Sabha, 12 Rajya Sabha). Assent to Bills, Issue Ordinances, Assent to state bills, Formation of New States.

(Any two points)

Executive Powers: Head of the Union Administration, Appointment of officials of the State – Appoints Prime Minister, Council of Ministers, Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court and the High Courts, Governors of the State, The Lt. Governors and the Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories, The Attorney General of India, The comptroller and Auditor General of India, The Chairman and Members of Planning Commissions and Economic Commission, Chief Election Commissioners, control over the state (President’s rule) Administration of Union Territories and Border Areas. (Any two points)

Question 5: Our Judicial system has a Supreme Court at its Apex, followed by the High Court and other subordinate Courts. In the light of this statement, explain the following:

(a) Any three types of cases in which the Supreme Court exercises its Original Jurisdiction.

(b) Any three ways by which the Constitution ensures the Independence of the Judiciary.

(c) ‘Advisory’ and ‘Revisory’ Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.


(a) Original Jurisdiction:

(i) The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in all disputes between the Union and States as well as between the states.

(ii) Protection of Fundamental Rights

(iii) Final Interpretation of the Constitution.

(iv) Transfer of cases from lower court.

(v) In a dispute between the union and state on one side and any other state on the other side.

(Any three points)

(b) (i) Appointment of Judges: Neither political bias nor personal favouritism would play any part in the appointment of Judges. It has enhanced independence of the judiciary.

(ii) Security of Tenure: A Judge can remain in office till he has attained the age of 65 years. He can be removed by the President on the ground of ‘proven misbehaviour or incapacity. It means that an Address can only be presented after an allegation has been thoroughly examined by some impartial tribunal.

(iii) Salaries are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India: Judge’s salaries and allowances shall not be varied to their disadvantage during their term of office.

(iv) No discussion shall take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any Judge: in the discharge of his duties.

(v) Genuine criticism of a Judgement is allowed, but nothing should be done to lower the authority or dignity of the Court.

(vi) Prohibition of practice after Retirement: A retired judge of the Supreme Court cannot plead any case in any court or tribunal in India. (Any three points)

(c) The President may obtain the opinion / advice of the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact, which is of public importance. Questions must be specific and not general or vague. The Supreme Court may report its opinion, after such hearing as it thinks fit. First, the Supreme Court is not bound to express any opinion on the questions submitted to it.

Second, the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding on the President or on other courts, because it is not a ‘judicial decision’. (Any two points)

The Supreme Court has power to review any judgement pronounced by it. This provision reflects that human judgement is fallible and the Court may rectify something that was misjudged. The Supreme Court cannot allow errors to continue indefinitely. It causes harm or damage to the general welfare of the public. (Any two points)

Question 6: Numerous causes gave rise to the First War of Independence and its consequences led to several changes in the British Government in India. In this context, answer the following:

(a) Explain any three political causes of the Revolt of 1857.

(b) Briefly explain the immediate cause of the Great Revolt.

(c) State any four changes in the administration of the British Government as a consequence

of the Revolt.


(a) Political Causes:

  • Policy of expansion
  • Outright wars
  • Doctrine of lapse
  • Subsidiary alliance
  • Annexations
  • Discourtesy to the Mughal emperor
  • Treatment to Nana Sahib
  • Unpopular administration
  • Absentee Sovereignty (Any three points)

(b) Immediate cause:

  • Introduction of the Enfield Rifle:
  • Greased the cartridge with animal fat and sepoys had to bite it off.
  • Went against their religious sentiments. (Narration / Explanation)

(c) (i) End of Company’s rule and the power transferred to the Crown.

(ii) Company’s Board of Control and the Court of Directors were abolished.

(iii) The Secretary of State to be assisted by the Indian Council of 15 members.

(iv) Appointments to the Civil Service to be made by open competition under rules made by the Secretary of State.

(v) The Viceroy took over the administration of the British Government in India.

(vi) Salary and allowance were to be found out of revenue of India.

(vii) The Governor General received the additional title of Viceroy. (Any four points)

Question 7: The Quit India Resolution in 1942 was one of the final calls given by Gandhi for the British to leave India. Moving towards Independence, Lord Mountbatten’s Plan was significant. In this context, answer the following:

(a) State two reasons for the launching of the Quit India Movement.

(b) Give any three effects of the Quit India Movement launched by Gandhi in 1942 that was significant to the last phase of the National Movement of India.

(c) Give any four clauses of the Mountbatten Plan of 1947.


(a) (i) Failure of the Cripps mission

(ii) Japanese Threat

(iii) Worsening of Communal problem of new confidence that the people had attained.

(iv) The movement hastened the British decision to quit India. (Any two points)

(b) (i) It demonstrated the depth of the nationalist feelings in India and the capacity of Indians for struggle of sacrifice.

(ii) Undermined the strength of the British in India.

(iii) It once again became a mass movement.

(iv) The movement was symbolic. (Any three points)

(c) Mountbatten’s Plan

(i) Two new dominions

(ii) Provisions of Partition (Sindh, NWFP, Sylhet, Bengal and Punjab)

(iii) Governor General for each dominion

(iv) Constituent Assemblies to serve as central legislatives

(v) End of British Parliament

(vi) Princely states

(vii)Treaties and Agreements

(viii) Division of the army and assets

(ix) Bringing the act into operation

(x) Office of Secretary of state of interest of existing officers.

(xi) Creation of a Boundary commission

(xii) Transfer of Power

(xiii) Relations with the commonwealth.

Question 8: Study the picture given below and answer the following questions:

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Qs Paper 2018 Solution-1

(a) Identify the leader given in the picture.

Name the Political party and the Military Organisation that he formed.

(b) State any three objectives of the Political party that he founded.

(c) Mention any four objectives of the Military Organisation that he formed.


(a) Subhas Chandra Bose

Forward Bloc

Indian National Army

(b) Forward Bloc:


1. Reorganization of agriculture and industry on socialist lines.

2. Abolition of the Zamindari system.

3. Introduction of a new monetary and credit system

4. Liberation of India

5. Making Right to work as Fundamental

6. Providing workers several kinds of benefits. (Any three points)

(c) (i) To organize an armed resolution and to fight the British army with modern arms.

(ii) To use the Indians living abroad in East Asia and then to confront the British.

(iii) To organize a provisional government of free India

(iv) Total mobilization of Indian man-power and money for a total war.

(v) The motto of the INA was ‘unity, faith, sacrifice’.

(vi) To train people for armed struggle inside and outside the country.

(vii) To throw the British out of the country. (Any four points)

Question 9: With reference to the Two Major World Wars in the 20th century, answer the following questions:

(a) Explain briefly the causes of World War I with reference to Nationalism and Imperialism.

(b) Explain briefly the territorial rearrangements as a result of World War I.

(c) State any four causes that led to the Second World War.


(a) (i) Aggressive nationalism – Military strength became the same with national prestige and every country began to increase her military power. e.g. Serbia, France and Italy

(ii) Imperialism was a system by which a powerful nation used to establish its control over another country/ dispute over Morocco.

(iii) England and France built up a huge colonial empire in Asia and Africa.

(iv) Each nation thought about its national interest and did not care for the interest of other nations.

(v) France wanted to get back Alsace-Lorraine.

(vi) Unsatisfied nation spirit of Balkans/discontent among Italians/ Franco-Prussian war/Germany wanted to be the leader of the world. (Any three points)

(b) Territorial rearrangement:

(i) Three ruling dynasties were destroyed – Romanov in Russia, Hohenzollern in Germany and Hapsburg in Austria- Hungary

(ii) Ottomans rule came to an end.

(iii) Czechoslovakia and Yugoslavia emerged as independent states (Romani, Finland).

(iv) Alsace-Lorraine was restored to France.

(v) Schleswig – Holstein was given to Denmark

(vi) Austria -Hungry separated

(vii) USA emerged as World Power

(viii) Germany had to surrender the areas of Eupen and Malmedy to Belgium. (Any three points)

(c) Causes of the Second World war:

(i) Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles

(ii) Rise of Fascism and Nazism

(iii) Policy of Appeasement

(iv) Japanese invasion of China

(v) Failure of League of Nations

(vi) Hitler’s invasion of Poland.

(vii) Arms race

(viii) Non-interference of the USA in world affairs.

Question 10: With reference to the United Nations and its Specialized Agencies, answer the following:

(a) Mention any three functions of the International Court of Justice.

(b) State the composition of the General Assembly.

(c) State any two functions of UNICEF and any two functions of WHO.


(a) Three functions of the International Court of Justice:

(i) Advisory opinion on legal matters to the organs of special agencies of the UN.

(ii) Decides disputes between member states when referred.

(iii) Disputes concerning interpretation of international law.

(iv) Compensation for breeding international law & treaty/agreements

(v) Certification of International law

(vi) To suggest methods for peaceful settlement of disputes. (Any three points)

(b) 1. All members of the United Nations are members of the General Assembly.

2. Each state has five representatives in the General Assembly.

3. Each state has only one vote.

4. It is a kind of Parliament.

5. At the starting of each session the assembly elects a new President, 21 vice Presidents.

The Presidency rotates each year among five groups of state. (Any three points)

(c) Functions of UNICEF

1. To render assistance in providing protective food like milk, meat, fish and fats to the

children. It takes care of the interests of women and pregnant mothers.

2. To provide funds for the training of health and sanitation workers nutritionist and crèche


3. Universal Child Immunization against preventable diseases by 1990.

4. To extend support to programmes such as suppression of traffic in women and children

and prevention of crimes committed by children.

5. To provide instant help to children and women when some disaster like earthquake

happens or overtaken by an epidemic.

6. To supply paper to publish textbooks.

7. Technical supplies, equipment and other aids for medicines and pipes and pumps for bringing clean water to villages. (Any two points)

Functions of WHO

1. Direct and coordinate health work on an international scale.

2. Eradicate disease

3. Promote the provision of good health and living conditions of the people.

4. To set international standards for food and medicines.

5. To provide safe drinking water.

6. Vaccination /immunization against six major diseases.

7. It promotes research to cure and prevent disease.

8. To organize conferences and seminars.

9. It publishes magazines and bulletins. (Any two points)

We hope students found this information on “ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2018” helpful for their exam preparation. They can also access solutions of other subjects of ICSE Class 10 Previous Years Question Papers by clicking here. Stay tuned to BYJU’S for the latest update on ICSE/CBSE/State Boards/Competitive exams. Also, download the BYJU’S App and fall in love with learning.


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