ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 2019 With Solution

Students find it difficult to decide how much to write for an answer in History and Civics Class 10 board exams paper. So, to help students understand this in a better way, we have provided the ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2019. This solution pdf contains the answers in steps along with the marking scheme. Going through ICSE History and Civics Question Paper 2019 for Class 10 solutions, students will get to know how much descriptive answer they have to write for a question depending upon its marks distribution.

The ICSE Class 10 History and Civics 2019 exam was conducted on 1st March 2019. The exam started at 11am and students were allotted 2 hours of time duration to finish the paper. Students can download the ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2019 PDF from the link below.

Download ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 2019

Download ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 2019 with Solution PDF

Students can have a look at the ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper Solution 2019 below:

 

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ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 2019 With Solution

Question 1:

(a) What is the normal term of office of the Lok Sabha?

(b) State the meaning of the term Question Hour.

(c) Name the Presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.

(d) State any one condition when the Parliament can legislate on subjects in the State List.

(e) Write any one circumstance when the President can declare a National Emergency.

(f) What happens when a motion of ‘No-Confidence’ is passed against a Minister?

(g) On whose advice can the President appoint the Council of Ministers?

(h) What is meant by Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?

(i) On what grounds can a Supreme Court Judge be removed from office?

(j) State one point of distinction between a District Judge and a Sessions Judge.

Answer:

(a) 5 years

(b) Question hour represents

− the first hour of every working day of the house (11:00 a.m. – 12:00 noon)

− the members can ask questions from the government

− on matters of public interests (Scrutiny) (Any one point)

(c) Speaker

(d) (i) During an emergency or President’s rule in a State

(ii) When two or more States request the Parliament

(iii) When the Rajya Sabha declares by 2/3rd majority that a subject has assumed national importance. (One point)

(e) (i) Danger of foreign aggression or war

(ii) Danger to peace and security of the country

(iii) Civil war (Internal disturbance)

(iv) Insurgency

(v) Armed rebellion (One point)

(f) The entire Ministry resigns en bloc (the government will resign). (Full answer)

(g) Prime Minister advises President in appointment of Council of Ministers.

(h) (i) Hears Appeals from a person / organisation when they are not satisfied.

(ii) Special Leave of Appeal

(iii) Appeals from the judgements of High Court or Lower court can be filed in the Supreme Court (One point)

(i)

− Charges of proven misbehavior

− Incapacity

− Violation of constitution/grave mis-conduct (One point)

(j) Sessions Court- Criminal cases (robbery, dacoities and murder).

Court of the District Judge- Civil Cases (Land and Property disputes and money transactions) District Judge presides over District Court and Sessions Judge over Session Courts. Session Judge has no administrative power but the District Judge has.

Question 2:

(a) What was the General Service Enlistment Act?

(b) Name the two books that Dadabhai Naoroji authored explaining the ‘Drain of India’s Wealth’.

(c) Name each of the organizations founded by Jyothiba Phule and Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d) Write any two contributions of Lala Lajpat Rai to the National Movement.

(e) State any two provisions of the Indian Independence Act of 1947 that was to decide the fate of the Princely States?

(f) Write any two reasons for the acceptance of the Mountbatten Plan by the Congress.

(g) State any two objections imposed by the Treaty of Versailles on the German military power.

(h) Name the Signatory Countries of the Triple Alliance.

(i) What is meant by the term ‘Veto’ power?

(j) Why was the League of Nations established?

Answer:

(a)

− Passed in1856.

− According to this Act, the Indian Soldier in the East India Company could be sent overseas on duty.

− It was a taboo for Indian Soldiers, especially the Brahmins to go overseas

− To go overseas went against their religious sentiments. (Any one point)

(b) Poverty and Un-British Rule in India

(c) (i) Satya Shodhak Samaj – Jyothiba Phule

(ii) Brahmo Samaj – Raja Rammohan Roy.

(d)

− Founded Punjabi,

− Vande Mataram (Urdu Daily),

− People (English Weekly),

− Young India (monthly magazine)

− Inspired the youth through his prolific writing

− Joined the Congress in 1888.

− Elected as the President of Congress in 1920,

− Was the first President of the All-Indian Trade Union Congress (in 1920).

− Founded the ‘Servants of People Society’ for welfare of the downtrodden.

− Laid the foundation of the D.A.V. College, Lahore

− Went to America and joined the Ghadar Party to mobilise opinion in favour of Indian freedom struggle

− Opened orphanages, hospitals and schools

− Led a protest against the Simon Commission and succumbed to injuries inflicted upon

him in a lathi charge

− Fought against the partition of Bengal

− Advocated Swadeshi (Separate Government) and Boycott (Any two points)

(e) (i) The Princely States would become Independent from the British authority.

(ii) All treaties and agreements made by the British with reference to the States would lapse.

(iii) States could remain independent or

(iv) Join either India or Pakistan. (Any two points)

(f) (i) It was the only solution to the communal problem/ no other option.

(ii) The League had joined the Interim Government to obstruct and not to cooperate.

(iii) The only alternative was a federation with a weak centre.

(iv) Any further continuation of the British rule would mean greater calamity.

(v) Further delay would cause a civil war.

(vi) Partition would rid the Constitution of separate electorates.

(vii)A smaller India with a strong central authority was better than a bigger state with a weak centre. (Any two points)

(g) (i) The army was restricted to a force of 1 lakh soldiers.

(ii) The navy was limited to 15,000 men and 24 ships

(iii) Air force and submarines were banned.

(iv) Rhine valley was demilitarized. (Any two points)

(h) Germany, Austria-Hungary & Italy (All three countries)

(i) The Permanent members of Security Council have veto power i.e. a negative vote that is exercised to make strong decisions or raise objections from any of the five members. Council is powerless to act if any of the five members uses the Veto power. (One point)

(j) (i) For Peace and Security.

(ii) To avoid future wars.

(iii) To maintain just and honourable relations

(iv) All States were to respect each other’s independence

(v) All States were to refer their disputes to the League of Nations for a peaceful settlement.

(vi) Member States were not supposed to maintain huge armies, warships and destructive armaments.

(vii) To enforce corrective action against member States for disobeying treaties and disturbing world peace and order (Two points).

PART II (50 Marks)

Question 3:

The Parliament is the body of people’s representatives who have Supreme power in a democracy. With reference to the Union Legislature answer the following:

(a) How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?

(b) Why is it called a Permanent house?

(c) State any two Financial and any two Legislative powers of the Indian Parliament.

Answer:

(a) Elected by the members of elected Legislative Assemblies. Indirectly elected on the basis of proportional representation with a single transferable vote.

(b) 1/3 of its members retire every two years

The house is never dissolved as a whole

(c) Financial Powers

− Passes the Budget of the Union Parliament,

− Determines the Salaries & Allowances of the members of Parliament,

− No taxes can be imposed unless approved by the Parliament,

− Passes the Supplementary grants

− Vote on account,

− Passes the Money Bill.

(Any two points)

Legislative Powers

− Makes laws on subjects in the Union List

− Makes laws on subjects in the State List (under certain conditions)

− Makes laws on subjects in the Concurrent list

− Possesses Residuary power.

− Approves Ordinances.

− Power during an Emergency

− Makes amendments to the Constitution

Question 4:

The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, is the most Powerful Institution in the Indian Polity. In this context, answer the following:

(a) State briefly the position of the Prime Minister in the Parliamentary system of Government. State any two powers the Prime Minister has as a leader of the Nation.

(b) Distinguish between the Council of Ministers and the Cabinet.

(c) Write any four functions of the ‘Cabinet’.

Answer: Position: The Prime Minister is the de facto or the real leader of the nation.

− He is the Leader of the Lok Sabha.

− He is the chief spokesperson of the Government.

− He is the defender of Government policies.

− He intervenes in case of controversial issues.

− Addresses nation during emergency or on important occasions.

− Represents and visits countries – for economic and social issues of the nation.

− Chairman of Niti Aayog and Atomic Energy Commission

− Decides what kind of relations India would have with other countries.

− Keeps President informed of the decision of the Cabinet.

(b)

S.No.

Council of Ministers

Cabinet

1

Consists of all the three categories of ministers.

Is a group of senior ministers holding important portfolios

2

The PM may or may not consult

them

The PM always consults them.

3

Rarely meets as a whole

Meets as frequently as possible

4

Does not advise the President

Advises the President through the PM

5

Larger Group

Smaller Group

6

May or may not hold important

portfolios

Hold important portfolios

(c) Powers of the Cabinet:

− Formulates policies and implements them.

− Coordinates the functioning of various Ministers.

− Introduces Bills

− Amends the Constitution

− Advises the President to summon the Houses of Parliament.

− Prepares President’s Special Address

− Advices the President to issues Ordinances

− Prepare Money and Non-Money Bills ( This is a separate point )

− Recommends proclamation of Emergency to the President.

− Decides all major appointments made by the President.

− Preparation of annual budget

− Acts as source of information

Question 5:

India has a single integrated judicial system that is Independent and Supreme. With reference to the Judiciary, answer the following:

(a) (i) Who appoints the Judges of the High Court?

(ii) State any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a High Court judge.

(b) Explain briefly the term ‘Court of Record’ with reference to the High Court.

(c) List any four writs that the High Court can issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Answer:

(a) (i) President

(ii)

  • One should be a citizen of India.
  • One should have held a judicial office in India for at least 10 years.
  • One should have been advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.
  • He should not be over 62 years of age. (Any three points)

(b)

  • A Court of Record is one whose judgements are recorded or for evidence and testimony. (For future references)
  • They are not to be questioned when they are produced before any court.
  • The judgements are in the nature of ‘precedents’ that is the High Court and other Courts are bound to give a similar decision in a similar case.
  • The law laid down by the High Court is binding on all subordinate courts and administrative tribunals in the State.
  • The Court has the power to punish anyone who commits contempt of the court. (Any two points)

(c) Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Quo Warranto and Certiorari. (Any two writs)

Question 6:

The Second half of the 19th century witnessed the growth of a strong feeling of Nationalism. With reference to the statement, answer the following:

(a) Write any three repressive Colonial policies of the British.

(b) State any three ways in which the Press played an important role in developing nationalism amongst Indians.

(c) Explain briefly any three differences in the methods adopted between the Early Nationalists and Radicals, in the National Movement.

Answer:

(a) (i) Organised the Grand Delhi Durbar

(ii) Introduced the Vernacular Press Act

(iii) Introduced the Indian Arms Act

(iv) Reduced the maximum age to take up the ICS examination from 21 to 19 years.

(v) Removed the import duties on the British goods and harmed the Indian industry.

(vi) Ilbert Bill Controversy

(Any three points)

(b) The press:

(i) Spread the message of patriotism

(ii) Spread the ideals of liberty, freedom and equality

(iii) Popularised the ideas of Home Rule and Independence

(iv) Carried on daily criticism of the British policies

(v) Exposed the true nature of British rule in India

(vi) Helped in the exchange of views among people from different parts of the country

(vii) Made the Indians aware of what was happening in the world.

(viii) Aroused public opinion in the country

(Any two points)

(c) Early Nationalists (Any two points)

(i) They believed in the policy of constitutional agitation within the legal framework, and

slow orderly political progress.

(ii) They held meetings where speeches were made and resolutions for popular demands were passed.

(iii) They made use of the press to criticise government policies,

(iv) They sent memorandums and petitions.

(v) They made use of three P’s – Petitions, Prayers and Protests.

(vi) A British Committee of the Indian National Congress was set up in London in 1889, which

published a weekly journal, India, to present India’s case before the British public.

(vii) Deputations of Indian leaders were sent to Britain. These political leaders carried on active propaganda in Britain.

Radicals: Methods: (Any two points)

(i) Swadeshi

(ii) Boycott

(iii) National Education

(iv) Passive Resistance

(v) Revivalism

(vi) Personal Sacrifices

(vii) Mass movement

(viii) Aggressive or assertive method

Question 7:

With reference to the picture given below, answer the following questions:

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Qs Paper 2019 Solution-1

(a) (i) Identify the Memorial built for those who were killed in this incident.

(ii) Where did this incident take place?

(iii) Name the movement launched by Gandhi in 1920 as a consequence.

(b) Explain briefly the reason for the suspension of this particular movement by Gandhi in 1922.

(c) State any four impacts of the movement.

Answer:

(a)

− Jallianwala Bagh Memorial

− Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar

− Non-Cooperation Movement

(b)

− The tragedy at Chauri Chaura, a village in Gorakhpur district in Uttar Pradesh.

− A procession of about 3,000 peasants marched to the police station to protest against the police officer.

− Police fired at the peasants.

− Peasants reacted and set the police station on fire.

− 22 policemen were killed.

− Gandhiji, who believed in Ahimsa, was greatly shocked and withdrew the movement on February 12, 1922.

− A police officer had beaten some farmers picketing a liquor shop.

(Narration of Incident with any of the three points cited in the answer)

(c) Impact of Non-Cooperation Movement:

− The National Movement became a Mass Movement (Gave a national base to the

Congress Party)

− Instilled Confidence, Patriotism among people.

− Congress became a revolutionary party

− Undermined the power and prestige of British government

− Fostered Hindu-Muslim unity.

− Promoted Social reforms (like removal of untouchability/promotion of khadi/setting up of national schools)

− Promoted the cult of Swaraj.

− Showed the true nature of the British.

− Spread Nationalism to every part of the country

− Affected British trade

− Showed power of passive resistance

(Any four points)

Question 8:

With reference to the National Movement from 1930 to 1947, answer the following:

(a) State any three features of the Programme of the Civil Disobedience Movement

launched in 1930.

(b) What was the significance of the Second Round Table Conference held in 1931?

(c) State any four clauses of the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946.

Answer:

(a) Gandhi reached Dandi on 5th April,1930 and next morning Gandhi violated the salt-laws by picking up some salt left by the sea waves. Gandhi’s campaign against the salt-laws was a signal to disobey – civil laws.

Civil Disobedience campaign involved:

− Defiance of salt laws.

− Boycott of liquor/schools and colleges/ Government jobs.

− Boycott of foreign cloth and British goods of all kinds.

− It also involved non-payment of taxes and land-revenue and violation of laws of different kinds, including forest laws.

− Spread to NWFP where Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan took the campaign against the government and he was called as Frontier Gandhi.

− Paralysed the British Government.

(Any three points)

(b) Gandhi was chosen as the sole representative of the Congress for the Second Round Table Conference.

− The Second Round Conference devoted most of its time to the communal question and the representation of minorities-the Muslims, Sikhs, the Christians and Anglo-Indians-in legislatures both at the Centre and in the Provinces.

− Gandhi was disgusted to find that most leaders were concerned only about seats in the legislatures for their respective communities.

− The question of Independence or of setting up a Responsible Government receded into background.

− Gandhi returned ‘empty handed’ as he could not persuade the British government to grant Freedom or even the Dominion Status to India.

(c) (i) There would be a Federal Union comprising the British Provinces and the Princely states.

(ii) The Union government would be empowered to deal with defense, foreign affairs and communications.

(iii) The Union would have its own executive and legislature composed of members elected by all provinces.

(iv) A Constituent Assembly comprising 389 members would be set up to frame the new Constitution of the Indian Union. Of these members, 296 would be elected from the British Provinces and 93 members from the Princely States.

(v) The British Provinces would be divided into three groups on communal basis – Group A, B and C. The provinces could opt out of the groups and join another by majority of votes (Provincial autonomy).

(vi) The Provinces would enjoy full autonomy for all subjects of administration other than the Union subjects.

(vii) An Interim Government would be formed at the Centre with 14 members.

(viii) India would be free to remain within the British Commonwealth or secede from it.(Freedom to join Commonwealth)

Question 9:

With reference to the Rise of Dictatorships and the Second World War, answer the following:

(a) State any three reasons for the Rise of Fascism in Italy.

(b) Explain any three consequences of World War II.

(c) Name the two rival blocs that fought against each other during World War II and state its signatory countries.

Answer:

(a) Rise of Fascism in Italy

− Dissatisfaction with the treaty of Versailles

− Economic crisis

− Political instability (Failure of democracy/corrupt democratic)

− Class conflicts

− Failure of League of Nations

− Leadership provided by Mussolini

− Fear of Communism

− Rise of Dictatorship (Totalitarianism)

(Any three points)

(b) Consequences of Second World War:

− Destruction of life and property.

− Defeat of the Axis Powers by the Allied Powers.

− Many new weapons of mass destruction were invented and used.

− Formation of the UN.

− The world was divided into two power blocs – the Democratic or Capitalist bloc led by the USA and the Communist bloc led by the erstwhile Soviet Union.

− Beginning of Cold War between two power blocs.

− Division of Germany

− Japan became weak and its emperor reduced to constitutional head.

− Imperialism came to an end.

− Fall of dictatorship

− Decolonisation

− USA and the Soviet Union became super powers. (Any three points)

(c) Axis – Germany Italy & Japan

Allies – Britain, France, USSR and later USA joined the Allies. (Any three countries)

Question 10:

The necessity to maintain International peace led to the establishment of the United Nations Organisation. With reference to the statement, answer the following:

(a) Write any three functions of UNESCO that preserves our ‘Cultural Heritage’.

(b) State the Composition of the Security Council.

(c) Write any four functions of the General Assembly.

Answer:

(a) Preservation of Cultural Heritage:

− UNESCO provides technical advice and assistance, equipment and funds for the

preservation of monuments and other works of art. It has prepared a World Heritage List

to identify the monuments and sites which are to be protected.

− It aims to protect the world inheritance of books, works of art and rare manuscripts.

− It gives encouragement to artistic creations in literature and fine arts.

− It pays attention towards the cultural development through the medium of films.

− It sends cultural missions to different countries so that there would be development of contacts which may promote peace and prosperity.

− It helps the member states in the preservation of their cultural heritage.

− It encourages translation of rare manuscripts.

− It plays a vital role in distributing knowledge about Human Rights.

(Any three points)

(b) Composition:

− The Council consists of 15 members.

− It has five permanent members – China, France, Russia, Britain and the United States

of America.

− The regional representation of the ten non-permanent members is:

(i) Afro-Asian Countries – 5

(ii) Latin American Countries – 2

(iii) West European and other Countries – 2

(iv) East European Countries – 1

− The ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly by a two-third

majority for a term of two years.

− A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.

− The Presidency of the Council rotates monthly, according to the English alphabetical

listing of its member states.

(Any three points)

(c) Functions of General Assembly:

− To make recommendations for the peaceful settlement of disputes

− To promote political, social and economic cooperation

− To receive and consider reports from the Security Council and other organs of UN.

− To consider and approve the budget of the UN.

− To regulate the working of other organs and agencies of UN.

− To elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council.

− To elect judges of the ICJ.

− To appoint Secretary General on the recommendation of Security Council.

− To amend the UN Charter.

− Functions under ‘Uniting for Peace Resolution’ 1950.

− New members are admitted by the General Assembly on the recommendation of

Security Council. (Any four points)

We hope this information on “ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers Solutions 2019” helped students in their exam preparation. To get the year wise ICSE Class 10 Previous Years Question papers along with solutions for other subjects, click here. Keep learning and download BYJU’S App to access interactive study videos.

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