JEE Main 2022 June 26 – Shift 2 Chemistry Question Paper with Solutions

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JEE Main 2022 26th June Evening Shift Chemistry Question Paper and Solutions

SECTION – A

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer :

1. The number of radial and angular nodes in 4d orbital are, respectively

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 3 and 2

(C) 1 and 0

(D) 2 and 1

Answer (A)

Sol. (i) In 4d n = 4 l = 2

Radial nodes = n – l – 1

= 4 – 2 – 1

= 1

Angular nodes = l

= 2

2. Match List I with List II

List I Enzyme		List II Conversion of
A	Invertase	I	Starch into maltose
B	Zymase	II	Maltose into glucose
C	Diastase	III	Glucose into ethanol
D	Maltase	IV	Cane sugar into glucose

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

(A) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(B) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

(C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

(D) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

Answer (C)

Sol. (A) Invertase → Cane sugar into glucose

(B) Zymase → Glucose into ethanol

(C) Diastase → Starch into maltose

(D) Maltase → Maltose into glucose

3. Which of the following elements is considered as a metalloid?

(A) Sc

(B) Pb

(C) Bi

(D) Te

Answer (D)

Sol. Tellurium is metalloid

4. The role of depressants in ‘Froth Floation method’ is to

(A) Selectively prevent one component of the ore from coming to the froth

(B) Reduce the consumption of oil for froth formation

(C) Stabilize the froth

(D) Enhance non-wettability of the mineral particles.

Answer (A)

Sol. The role of depressants is to selectively prevent one component of the ore from coming to froth.

5. Boiling of hard water is helpful in removing the temporary hardness by converting calcium hydrogen carbonate and magnesium hydrogen carbonate to

(A) CaCO₃ and Mg(OH)₂

(B) CaCO₃ and MgCO₃

(C) Ca(OH)₂ and MgCO₃

(D) Ca(OH)₂ and Mg(OH)₂

Answer (A)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}Ca(HCO_3)_2\xrightarrow[]{\Delta}CaCO_3\downarrow+H_2O+CO_2\uparrow\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}Mg(HCO_3)_2\xrightarrow[]{\Delta}Mg(OH)_2+2CO_2\uparrow\end{array} \)

6. s-block element which cannot be qualitatively confirmed by the flame test is

(1) Li

(2) Na

(3) Rb

(4) Be

Answer (D)

Sol. Beryllium does not give flame test because of its small size and high ionization energy the energy of flame is not sufficient to excite the electrons to higher energy level.

7. The oxide which contains an odd electron at the nitrogen atom is

(A) N₂O

(B) NO₂

(C) N₂O₃

(D) N₂O₅

Answer (B)

Sol. The oxide of nitrogen which contains odd electron is NO₂

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry A7

8. Which one of the following is an example of disproportionation reaction?

\(\begin{array}{l}(A)\ 3MnO_{4}^{2-}+4H^+\to 2MnO_{4}^{-}+MnO_2+2H_2O\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}(B)\ MnO_{4}^{-}+4H^++4e^-\to MnO_2+2H_2O\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}(C)\ 10l^-+2MnO_{4}^{-}+16H^+\to 2Mn^{2+}+8H_2O+5l_2\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}(D)\ 8MnO_{4}^{-}+3S_2O_{3}^{2-}+H2O\to 8MnO_2+6SO_{4}^{2-}+2OH^-\end{array} \)

Answer (A)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}\overset{+6}{M}nO_{4}^{-2}\to \overset{+7}{M}nO_{4}^{-}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}\overset{+6}{M}nO_{4}^{-2}\to \overset{+4}{M}nO_2\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}MnO_{4}^{-2}\end{array} \)

is an intermediate oxidation state and is converted into compounds having higher and lower oxidation states.

9. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanoid elements is +3. Which of the following is likely to deviate easily from +3 oxidation state?

(1) Ce(At. No. 58)

(2) La (At. No. 57)

(3) Lu (At. No. 71)

(4) Gd(At. No. 64)

Answer (A)

Sol. Ce → [Xe]4f¹ 5d¹ 6s²

Ce⁺⁴ → [xe] 4f° 5d° 6s°

Cerium in +4 oxidation state acquires inert gas configuration.

10. The measured BOD values for four different water samples (A-D) are as follows:

A = 3 ppm; B = 18 ppm; C = 21 ppm; D = 4 ppm;. The water samples which can be called as highly polluted with organic wastes, are

(A) A and B

(B) A and D

(C) B and C

(D) B and D

Answer (C)

Highly polluted water should have BOD value of 17 ppm or more.

11. The correct order of nucleophilicity is

(A) F^– > OH^–

\(\begin{array}{l}(B)\ H_2\ddot{\underset{..}O}>OH^-\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}(C)\ {R\ddot{\underset{..}{O}}H}>RO^-\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}(D)\ NH_{2}^{-}>NH_3\end{array} \)

Answer (D)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}\underset{Acid}{NH_3}\rightarrow\underset{Conjugate~ base}{NH_{2}^{-}}+H^+\end{array} \)

Conjugate base of acid is always a stronger nucleophile.

12. Oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde can be easily carried out with which of the following reagents?

(A) CrO₃/acetic acid, H₃O⁺

(B) CrO₃/acetic anhydride, H₃O⁺

(C) KMnO₄/HCl, H₃O⁺

(D) CO/HCl, anhydrous AlCl₃

Answer (B)

Sol.

13. The major product in the following reaction is:

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry Q13

Answer (A)

Sol. Oxymercuration-demercuration follows Markovnikov’s addition of water without rearrangement.

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry A13

14. Halogenation of which one of the following will yield m-substituted product with respect to methyl group as a major product?

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry Q14 options

Answer (C)

Sol.

Both products are meta with respect to –CH₃.

15. The reagent, from the following, which converts benzoic acid to benzaldehyde in one step is

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry Q15

Answer (C)

Sol. Benzoic acid can be converted to benzaldehyde in presence of MnO.

16. The final product ‘A’ in the following reaction sequence

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry Q16

Answer (A)

Sol.

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry A16

17. Which statement is NOT correct for p-toluenesulphonyl chloride?

(A) It is known as Hinsberg’s reagent

(B) It is used to distinguish primary and secondary amines

(C) On treatment with secondary amine, it leads to a product, that is soluble in alkali

(D) It doesn’t react with tertiary amines

Answer (C)

Sol.

18. The final product ‘C’ in the following series of reactions

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry Q18

Answer (C)

Sol.

19. Which of the following is NOT an example of synthetic detergent?

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Chemistry Q19

Answer (B)

Sol. CH₃ – (CH₂)₁₆ – COO^– Na⁺

Sodium stearate is example of soap.

20. Which one of the following is a water soluble vitamin, that is not excreted easily?

(A) Vitamin B₂

(B) Vitamin B₁

(C) Vitamin B₆

(D) Vitamin B₁₂

Answer (D)

Sol. Vitamin B₁₂ is water soluble and not excreted easily.

SECTION – B

Numerical Value Type Questions: This section contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.

1. CNG is an important transportation fuel. When 100 g CNG is mixed with 208 g oxygen in vehicles, it leads to the formation of CO₂ and H₂O and produced large quantity of heat during this combustion, then the amount of carbon dioxide, produced in grams is _____. [nearest integer]

[Assume CNG to be methane]

Answer (143)

Sol. CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O

\(\begin{array}{l}\begin{matrix}wt. of CH_4=100 ~\textup{g} \\wt. of O_2=208~\textup{g} \end{matrix}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}n_{O_2}=\frac{208}{32}\end{array} \)

In this reaction O₂ is limiting reagent

2 moles of O₂ → 1 mole of CO₂

1 mole of O₂ → ½ mole of CO₂

\(\begin{array}{l}\frac{208}{32}\ \text{mole of}\ O_2\rightarrow \frac{208}{32}\times\frac{1}{2}\ \text{mole of}\ CO_2\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}\rightarrow \frac{208}{32}\times\frac{1}{2}\times 44\ gm\ of\ CO_2\end{array} \)

→ 143 gm of CO₂

2. In a solid AB, A atoms are in ccp arrangement and B atoms occupy all the octahedral sites. If two atoms from the opposite faces are removed, then the resultant stoichiometry of the compound is A_xB_y. The value of x is _____. [nearest integer]

Answer (3)

Sol. A atoms are in CCP contribution of A is

A = 4

If atoms from opposite faces are removed then

\(\begin{array}{l}A=4-{x\times\frac{1}{x}}\end{array} \)

A = 3

Value of x = 3

3. Amongst SF₄, XeF₄, CF₄ and H₂O, the number of species with two lone pair of electrons is _____.

Answer (2)

Sol.

XeF₄ and H₂O have 2 lone pairs.

4. A fish swimming in water body when taken out from the water body is covered with a film of water of weight 36 g. When it is subjected to cooking at 100 °C, then the internal energy for vaporization in kJ mol^–1 is ________. [nearest integer]

[Assume steam to be an ideal gas. Given Δ_vapH^Θ for water at 373 K and 1 bar is 41.1 kJ mol^–1; R = 8.31 J K^–1 mol^–1]

Answer (38)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}H_2\underset{36~\text{g}}{O}(l )\to H_2\underset{36g}{O}(g)\end{array} \)

(evaporation)

\(\begin{array}{l}n_{H_{2}O}=\frac{36}{18}=2\end{array} \)

Δn_g = 1 – 0 = 1

ΔU_vap = ΔH_vap – Δn_gRT

= 41.1 – (1) × 8.31 × 10^–3 × 373

= 41.1 – 3.099

= 38 kJ/mol

5. The osmotic pressure exerted by a solution prepared by dissolving 2.0 g of protein of molar mass 60 kg mol^–1 in 200 mL of water at 27°C is _________ Pa. [Integer value]

(use R = 0.083 L bar mol^–1 K^–1)

Answer (415)

Sol. π = i CRT (i = 1)

\(\begin{array}{l}\pi = \frac{2\times1000}{60\times10^3\times200}\times.083\times300\end{array} \)

π = 0.00415 atm

π = 415 Pa

6. 40% of HI undergoes decomposition to H₂ and I₂ at 300 K. ΔG° for this decomposition reaction at one atmosphere pressure is _____ J mol^–1. [nearest integer]

(Use R = 8.31 J K^–1 mol^–1; log 2 = 0.3010, ln 10 = 2.3, log 3 = 0.477)

Answer (2735)

^Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}\begin{matrix}HI\rightleftharpoons &\frac{1}{2}H_2 &+\frac{1}{2}l_2 \\1 &0 &0 \\1-\alpha &\alpha/2 &\alpha/2 \\\end{matrix}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}\Delta G^{\circ} =-RTInK\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=-RTIn\frac{\left((\frac{\alpha }{2})^{1/2}\left(\frac{\alpha }{2}\right)^{1/2} \right )}{1-\alpha }\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=RT In\frac{\alpha}{2(1-\alpha)}\end{array} \)

(α = 0.4)

\(\begin{array}{l}=-8.314\times300 In\frac{0.4}{2\times0.6}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=+8.314\times300~In3\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=2735 ~\textup{J/mol}\end{array} \)

7.

\(\begin{array}{l}Cu(S)+Sn^{2+}(0.001M)\to Cu^{2+}(0.01M)+Sn(s)\end{array} \)

The Gibbs free energy change for the above reaction at 298 K is x × 10^–1kJ mol^–1. The value of x is ______.[nearest integer]

\(\begin{array}{l}[Given\ E_{cu^{2+}/Cu}^{\circleddash }=0.34V;E_{Sn^{2+}/Sn}^{\circleddash }=-0.14V;F=96500~\textup{C~mol}^{-1}]\end{array} \)

Answer (983)

^Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}Cu+Sn^{2+}\to Cu^{2+}+Sn(s)\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}E^{\circ}_{cell}=E^{\circ}_{Ox}+E^{\circ}_{Red}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=-0.34-0.14\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=-0.48~\textup{V}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}E=E^{\circ}-\frac{0.0591}{2}log\frac{[Cu^{2+}]}{[Sn^{2+}]}\end{array} \)

= -0.48 – 0.0295 log 10

=-0.5095 V

\(\begin{array}{l}\Delta G=-nFE \end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=-2\times96500\times-0.5095~\textup{J/mol}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=98333.5\times10^{-3}~\textup{kJ/mol}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=983.3\times10^{-1} \textup{kJ/mol}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=983\times10^{-1} \textup{kJ/mol}\end{array} \)

8. Catalyst A reduces the activation energy for a reaction by 10 kJ mol^–1 at 300 K. The ratio of rate constants,

\(\begin{array}{l}\frac{K’,Catalysed}{K,Uncatalysed}\end{array} \)

is e^x. The value of x is ____.[nearest integer]

[Assume that the pre-exponential factor is same in both the cases Given R = 8.31 J K^–1 mol^–1]

Answer (4)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}In\frac{K’}{K}=\frac{E_a-E_{a}’}{RT}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}=\frac{10\times10^3}{8.314\times300}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}In\frac{K’}{K}=\frac{100}{8.314\times3}\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}\frac{K’}{K}=e^4\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}x=4\end{array} \)

9. Reaction of [Co(H₂O)₆]²⁺ with excess ammonia and in the presence of oxygen results into a diamagnetic product. Number of electrons present in t_2g-orbitals of the product is _______.

Answer (6)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}[Co(H_2O)_6]^{+2}\xrightarrow[O_2]{NH_3}[Co(NH_3)_6]^{+3}+e^-\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}Co^{3+}\to 3d^6\end{array} \)

NH₃ is a strong field ligand.

\(\begin{array}{l}3d^6\to t_{2g}^{6}eg^0\end{array} \)

10. The moles of methane required to produce 81 g of water after complete combustion is _____ × 10^–2 mol. [nearest integer]

Answer (225)

Sol.

\(\begin{array}{l}CH_4+2O_2\to CO_2+2H_2O\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}1\ \text{mol}\ CH_4\to\text{ 2 mole}\ H_2O\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}36\ \text{ gm}\ H_2O\to \text{1 mole}\ CH_4\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}81~gm~H_2O\to \frac{1}{36}\times81~mole~CH_4\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}\to 2.25 mole\end{array} \)

\(\begin{array}{l}\to 225\times 10^{-2}\end{array} \)

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JEE Main Question Paper with Solutions – June 26th 2022 Shift 2

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Question Paper – Physics Solutions

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Question Paper – Chemistry Solutions

JEE Main 2022 June 26 Shift 2 Question Paper – Maths Solutions

Frequently Asked Questions – FAQs

Q1

What are the chapters included from Class 12 Chemistry in JEE Main 2022 June 26 shift 2 question paper?

The list of chapters from Class 12 in JEE Main 2022 June 26 shift 2 question paper are:
Biomolecules
Chemical Kinetics and Nuclear Chemistry
The P-Block Elements
The D and F-Block Elements
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids
Electrochemistry
Surface Chemistry
The Solid State
Hydrocarbons
Amines
Chemistry In Everyday Life
Coordination Compounds
Solutions

Q2

What chapters of Class 11 Chemistry are included in the JEE Main 2022 June 26th shift 2 question paper?

The list of chapters from Class 12 in the JEE Main 2022 June 26th shift 2 question paper are:
The S-Block Elements
Structure of Atom
Environmental Chemistry
Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry
Chemical Bonding and Molecular Structure
Thermodynamics

Q3

What was the difficulty level of the Chemistry questions asked in JEE Main 2022 26th June second shift question paper?

Most of the Chemistry questions were either simple to moderate and one was difficult.

Q4

If the questions are rated on a scale of 1 to 3, what was the difficulty level of Chemistry questions in JEE Main 2022 June 26 – Shift 2 Question Paper?

According to ratings done by the expert faculty, the difficulty level of Chemistry is 1.64 out of 3.

Q5

How many difficult Chemistry questions were asked in JEE Main 2022 June 26 – shift 2 paper?

Of the 25 memory-based questions there was only 1 difficult question.

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