Students will find the Jharkhand 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions here. Download the question paper to get familiar with the NTSE exam pattern, the marking scheme and the type of questions that are asked in the exam. Students can also start solving the different types of questions and work on improving their speed and accuracy. In essence, students will get to practice as per the actual exam format and this will make them feel motivated and well prepared.
Jharkhand 2020-21 NTSE Stage 1 Answer Key & Question Paper With Solutions
Paper MAT
Question 1. Choose the odd one:
a. Patna
b. Shimla
c. Bhopal
d. Ujjain
Answer: (d)
Patna, Shimla and Bhopal are the capital cities of Bihar, Himachal Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh respectively. Ujjain is a city in Madhya Pradesh.
Question 2. Which alternative replaces the question mark?
45, 34, 25, 18, ?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
Answer: (c)
Question 3. 2 _ 1 3 _ 4 _ 3 _ _ _ 3 2 4 1 3
a. 213421
b. 421241
c. 241321
d. 123421
Answer: (b)
Repeating unit: 2413
2 4 1 3 / 2 4 1 3 / 24 1 3/ 2 4 1 3
Question 4. What will come in place of the question mark (?)
ECA, JHF, OMK, ?
a. LNP
b. RPT
c. QPN
d. TRP
Answer: (d)
The corresponding letters are all 5 letters apart.
Question 5. How many meaningful two-lettered English words can be made by taking letters from the latter half of the English alphabet?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. More than three
Answer: (d)
Some meaningful two-lettered English words from the latter half of the English alphabet are: ON, OR, OX, UP, NO, US, etc.
Question 6. Some letters are given with numbers 1 to 7. Choose the order of the letters by which a meaningful English word can be made:
S O U B R C E
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
a. 4216573
b. 2416537
c. 2146357
d. 2416357
Answer: (d)
A meaningful 7 letter word from the given letters is OBSCURE. So, the order of the letters is 2416357.
Question 7. Which of the following letters will come in place of question mark (?) in the chain of letters of English alphabet?
BZA DYC FXE ? JVI
a. HUG
b. UHG
c. HWG
d. WHG
Answer: (c)
Question 8. Choose the word from the following alternatives which cannot be made with the letters of the given word:
COMPREHENSION
a. COMPRISE
b. PENSION
c. ONION
d. PREACH
Answer: (d)
All the words COMPRISE, PENSION, ONION can be made with the letters in COMPREHENSION.
But the word PREACH cannot be made because there is no ‘A’ in COMPREHENSION.
Question 9. Choose the alternative which will complete the following sequence:
Z,X,U,Q,L, ?
a. F
b. E
c. C
d. H
Answer: (a)
Question 10. In a code language CENTRAL is written as LARTNEC then in that language what will be written for SEMINAR?
a. NARMES
b. MESIRAN
c. RANIMES
d. NARISEM
Answer: (c)
In this code, the words are written in reverse order. So, SEMINAR is RANIMES.
Question 11. By using the letters of the word ‘AIPR’ only once, how many meaningful English words can be made?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer: (a)
Only one meaningful word can be made by rearranging the letters of AIPR – PAIR.
Question 12. In the given question if the letters of the word are rearranged then comes the name of one of which of the following alternatives?
LORAMIGD
a. Bird
b. Animal
c. Tree
d. Flower
Answer: (d)
Rearranging the 8 letters of LORAMIGD, we get MARIGOLD which is a flower.
Question 13. By using the letters of ‘ADER’ only once how many meaningful English words can be made?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Four
Answer: (c)
Meaningful english words using ‘ADER’ – DEAR, DARE, READ.
Question 14. If in a code language HANUMAN is written as MFSZRFS, then what will BINAY be written in that code language
a. GSNTD
b. GNSFD
c. GSNDT
d. GNSDT
Answer: (b)
Question 15. If in a code language MOTHER is written as OQVJGT, then what way SISTER will be written?
a. CJUVGT
b. TJTUFS
c. TJTUES
d. UKUVGT
Answer: (d)
Question 16. If in a code language A is written as 2, B is written as 4 and C is written as 6, then in that language 12 10 10 8 will be written as
a. DEEP
b. DOOR
c. DEAF
d. FEED
Answer: (d)
The code can be decoded using 2 ÷ 2 = 1 = A
4 ÷ 2 = 2 = B
6 ÷ 2 = 3 = C
So, 12 ÷ 2 = 6 = F
10 ÷ 2 = 5 = E
10 ÷ 2 = 5 = E
8 ÷ 2 = 4 = D
Hence, the word is FEED.
Question 17. In a symbolic language POCKET is written as QNDJFS, then in that language what will DEAR be written?
a. EDBQ
b. CFBQ
c. EDCQ
d. EFDQ
Answer: (a)
Question 18. In a code language CHAIR is written as EGCHT, then in that language, PROVE will be written as
a. NSNXD
b. RPPVG
c. NRNUD
d. RQQUG
Answer: (d)
Question 19. As ‘Warrior’ IS RELATED TO ‘battlefield’ in the same way to what is ‘steward’ RELATED?
a. Shop
b. Restaurant
c. Stage
d. Garage
Answer: (b)
A warrior’s place is in the battlefield and a steward’s place is in the restaurant.
Question 20. As’ white pigeon’ is related to ‘peace’, in the same way ‘black colour’ is related to which of the following?
a. Hospital
b. Power
c. Sorrow
d. Bravery
Answer: (b)
A ‘white pigeon’ depicts ‘peace’. In the same way ‘black colour’ is associated with power.
Question 21. As ‘Chicago’ is related to America, in the same way ‘Sydney’ is related to
a. Egypt
b. Australia
c. India
d. England
Answer: (b)
Chicago is a city in America and likewise, Sydney is a city in Australia.
Question 22. As the ‘Publisher’ is related to ‘Book’, in the same way ‘Film is related to
a. Director
b. Actor
c. Producer
d. Hero
Answer: (c)
The production of a book is done by the publisher and the production of a movie is done by the producer.
Question 23. As ‘Lotus’ is related to ‘India’, in the same way ‘Great Britain’ is related to
a. Jasmine
b. Rose
c. Chrysanthemum
d. White Lily
Answer: (b)
The national flower of India is the Lotus. Similarly, the national flower of Great Britain is the (Tudor) Rose.
Question 24. Tripura : Agartala : : Mizoram 😕
a. Aizawl
b. Imphal
c. Kavaratti
d. Silvassa
Answer: (a)
Tripura is the capital of Agartala and Aizawl is the capital of Mizoram.
(Imphal is the capital city of Manipur, Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory Lakshadweep, and Silvassa is the capital of the Union Territory Dadra and Nagar Haveli.)
Question 25. Rohu : Fish : : Bat 😕
a. Amphibian
b. Reptile
c. Mammal
d. Aquatic
Answer: (c)
Rohu is a fish and a bat is a mammal.
Question 26. Thermometer : Temperature : : Lactometer 😕
a. Purity of curd
b. Purity of milk
c. Purity of water
d. Atmospheric pressure
Answer: (b)
A thermometer measures temperature. And a lactometer measures the density or purity of milk.
Question 27. Shyam is the son of Ram and maternal brother of Jadu, then how is Ram related to Jadu?
a. Paternal uncle
b. Maternal uncle
c. Father
d. Maternal grandfather
Answer: (b)
Shyam is Jadu’s cousin belonging to the mother’s side of the family.
So, the family tree looks like:
We have considered that Ram’s wife’s sister has Jaddu as her son, because Shyam and Jaddu are mentioned as maternal brothers.
So, Ram is Maternal uncle of Jaddu, since Jaddu’s mother and Ram’s wife are sisters.
Question 28. In a marriage reception, pointing to a lady a man said, ‘That lady is the only daughter of the father-in-law of my eldest brother’. What is the relation of that man with the lady?
a. Husband’s younger brother
b. Brother
c. Nephew
d. Father
Answer: (a)
Eldest brother’s father-in-law’s only daughter means eldest brother’s wife. So, the man is the lady’s husband’s younger brother. [The lady is the sister-in-law of the man].
Question 29. Second : Time : : Pascal : ?
a. Resistance
b. Illumination
c. Potential
d. Pressure
Answer: (d)
Second (s) is a unit of time and Pascal (Pa) is a unit of pressure.
Question 30. B is the sister of A and C is the mother of B. How is C related to A?
a. Mother
b. Father
c. Maternal aunt
d. Maternal grandmother
Answer: (a)
Question 31. Following the pattern of the following letter series fill in the blank space:
ak, eo, is,_____qa, ue
a. Iv
b. mw
c. nx
d. oe
Answer: (b)
Question 32. What will come next in series
D, H, L, P
a. Q
b. S
c. U
d. T
Answer: (d)
Question 33. 10J, 13M, 17Q, 20T, _______
a. 24X
b. 25Y
c. 26Z
d. 23V
Answer: (a)
Question 34. Telephone : Graham Bell : : Electric Bulb 😕
a. J L Baird
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b. Thomas Alva Edison
<./span>
c. James Watt
<./span>
d. G Marconi
<./span>
Answer: (b)
The telephone was invented by Alexander Graham Bell. And the electric bulb was invented by Thomas Alva Edison.
In which of the following question a group of three pictures are given. You have to find out the fourth picture. You have to select the answer from (a), (b), (c) and (d):
Question 35. Select the correct picture.
Answer: (d)
We can see that A and B are mirror images. So, C and D should be mirror images too. So, the pattern is:
Question 36.Select the correct picture.
Answer: (d)
In this pattern, we have a ‘white’ rectangle and then a ‘white’ circle. Next we have a ‘white and black’ rectangle. So, we should have a ‘white and black’ circle to continue this pattern.
Question 37. Select the correct picture.
Answer: (b)
A: ‘white circle’ with ‘shaded background’.
B: ‘white background with ‘shaded circle’
C: ‘white rectangle’ with ‘shaded background’.
So, D: ‘white background with ‘shaded rectangle’
Question 38.Select the correct picture.
Answer: (d)
We can see that the pattern will follow towards completing two semi-circles at the end. It starts with a figure that is divided into two oppositely placed incomplete semi-circle. In the next one, a semicircle is completed, thus finally the second semi-circle is also completed as shown. So, the answer is option d.
Question 39.Select the correct picture.
Answer: (c)
We can see that the arrows are rotating clockwise as we go from A to C. So, the pattern will continue thus and the arrow points to the right.
Question 40. Select the correct picture.
Answer: (a)
We can see that the corner is moving anti-clockwise as we go from A to C. So, the pattern will continue and the line will be on the top right corner.
Question 41. If in a code language LPPHGLDWH is written as IMMEDIATE then WRSVHFUHW will be written as
a. YUVKIXKY
b. FAITHFUL
c. TOPSBRASS
d. TOPSECRET
Answer: (d)
Question 42. If TOM = 48 and DICK = 27 then HARRY will mean
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80
Answer: (c)
Here, we’re adding the values of the positions of the letters. For TOM, since T is the 20th letter, O is the 15th letter and M is the 13th letter, TOM = 20+15+13 = 48.
Similarly, DICK = 4+9+3+11 = 27.
And HARRY = 8+1+18+18+25 = 70.
Question 43. If in a code language SISTER is written as 535301, UNCLE is written as 84670 and BOY is written as 129 then in that language SON will be written as
a. 923
b. 524
c. 342
d. 872
Answer: (b)
Question 44. If in a code language 5234 is written for RING and 6109 for FAST, then in that language 095234 will be written for
a. STRING
b. NGRIST
c. STRINIG
d. STRIGN
Answer: (a)
Question 45. Rita is taller than Neeta but shorter than Sita, Sita is shorter than Gita then who is the tallest among them?
a. Rita
b. Neeta
c. Sita
d. Gita
Answer: (d)
Rita is taller than Neeta but shorter than Sita ⇒ Sita > Rita > Neeta
Sita is shorter than Gita ⇒ Gita > Sita > Rita > Neeta.
Therefore, Gita is the tallest among them.
Question 46 If in a code language FIRE is written as DGPC, then in that code language SHOT will be written as
a. FQMR
b. QMFR
c. QFMR
d. QREM
Answer: (c)
Question 47. In the way ‘horse’ is related to ‘run’ in the same way ‘bird’ is related to
a. Move
b. Run
c. Crawl
d. Fly
Answer: (d)
A horse runs and a bird flies.
Question 48. In the way ‘voltmeter’ is related to ‘potential difference’, in the same way ‘Ammeter’ is related to
a. Rain
b. Earthquake
c. Electric current
d. Temperature
Answer: (c)
Potential difference is measured using a voltmeter and an ammeter is used to measure electric current.
Question 49. In the way ‘Indonesia’ is related to ‘Jakarta’ in the same way ‘Nepal’ is related to
a. Melbourne
b. Dhaka
c. Kathmandu
d. Islamabad
Answer: (c)
Jakarta is the capital of Indonesia. In the same way, Kathmandu is the capital of Nepal.
Question 50. In the way India is related to Ashok Chakra, the same way Sri Lanka is related to
a. Lily
b. Lion and sword
c. Moon and star
d. Red star
Answer: (b)
The Indian Flag has an ‘Ashoka Chakra’. Similarly, the Sri Lankan flag as a golden lion with its right fore-paw holding a sword. So, the correct answer is ‘Lion and Sword’.
Question 51. In the way ‘Hockey’ is related to ‘India’ in the same way ‘Spain’ is related to
a. Baseball
b. Bull fight
c. Football
d. Ice Hockey
Answer: (c)
(Field) Hockey is considered as the national sport of India, however, there is no official national sport of India. Similarly, there is no official national sport of Spain. Football is an internationally played sport extremely popular in Spain and can be considered as the national sport of Spain. Bull fighting however, is a popular game local to Spain only.
Question 52. In the way, ‘Santhal’ is related to ‘India’, in the same way, ‘Negro’ is related to
a. Japan
b. Germany
c. Africa, America
d. Nepal
Answer: (c)
‘Santhal’ is an ethic group found in India (and Bangladesh), especially in Jharkhand and West Bengal. Negro is a term used for people of Black/African ethnicity.
Question 53. In the way ‘Red Fort’ is related to Delhi, in the same way ‘Pyramid’ is related to
a. New York
b. Egypt
c. London
d. Berlin
Answer: (b)
The Red Fort is a monument in Delhi. Similarly, the Pyramid (of Giza) is a monument in Egypt.
Question 54. In the way the poet is related to the poem, in the same way, ornaments are related to
a. Goldsmith
b. Cobbler
c. Carpenter
d. Dance director
Answer: (a)
A poet makes (writes) a poem. And a goldsmith makes ornaments.
Question 55. In the way, ‘area’ is related to ‘hectare’, the same way ‘radian’ is related to
a. Heat
b. Potential
c. Resistance
d. Angle
Answer: (d)
A hectare is a unit of area. And a radian is a unit for measuring angles.
Question 56. The relation that exists between ABC and ZYX, the same relation will exist between CBA and
a. ZXY
b. BCA
c. XYZ
d. XZY
Answer: (c)
Question 57. In the way 28 is related to 82 in the same way 36 is related to
a. 56
b. 32
c. 63
d. 56
Answer: (c)
28 is related to 82 ⇒ By observation, we can see that the digits are just interchanged. Therefore, in the same way 36 is related to 63.
Question 58. Statue of Liberty : USA : : Eiffel Tower : ?
a. New Zealand
b. France
c. Indonesia
d. Japan
Answer: (b)
The Statue of Liberty is situated in New York, USA. Similarly, the Eiffel Tower is situated in Paris, France.
Question 59. In the way, Palaeontology is related to Fossil in the same way Pedology is related to
a. Blood
b. Plants
c. Soil
d. Tissue
Answer: (c)
Palaeontology is the study of fossils. And pedology is the study of soil.
Question 60. In the way, White Pigeon is related to peace, the same way Swastik is related to
a. Good Luck
b. Prosperity
c. Civilization and culture
d. Danger
Answer: (a) or (b)
White pigeon is a symbol of peace and the Swastik is a symbol of good luck and well-being or prosperity.
Question 61. Regarding Ajit, Neelam tells her friend that ‘He is the only son of grandfather of my own brother’, then how is Neelam related to Ajit?
a. Maternal aunt
b. Sister
c. Daughter
d. Paternal aunt
Answer: (c)
Question 62. Navin, the son of a photographer who is a resident of Nagpur says to Urmila that Prabhat, who is staying in Delhi, is the eldest son the father of Samir. If the mother of Samir is the wife of Navin, then what is the relation Prabhat has with Navin?
a. Son
b. Brother
c. Nephew (Sister’s son)
d. Nephew (brother’s son)
Answer: (a)
Question 63. A man walks 12 km towards the north. After this, he walks 5 km towards west then how far is he now from his starting point?
a. 22 km
b. 17 km
c. 5 km
d. 13 km
Answer: (d)
Let’s assume the man walks from 12 km towards the north (OA). Then, he walks 5 km towards the west (AB). So, the distance between his starting point and where he is now will be given by OB.
Using Pythagoras theorem,
OB2 = AB2 + OA2
OB2 = 52 + 122
OB2 = 25 + 144
OB2 = 169
So, OB = 13.
So, he was 13 km far from the point he started.
Question 64. Pointing to a lady Vijay says that “She is the only sister of my brother-in-law”. How is the lady related to Vijay?
a. Daughter
b. Wife
c. Sister
d. Sister-in-law
Answer: (b)
She is the only sister of my brother-in-law – This means that the lady is Vijay’s wife.
Question 65. Pointing to a man in a picture a women said, The father of his brother is the only son of my mother’. How is the man related to that woman?
a. Grandson
b. Nephew (Brother’s son)
c. Son
d. Brother
Answer: (b)
Question 66. At the time of sunrise, a boy was doing exercise by keeping his head down and legs up in the ground. If his left hand is toward the east, then in which direction is his face?
a. North
b. South
c. West
d. None of these
Answer: (a)
If the boy was standing upright and his left hand was pointing towards the east, he would be facing south. But since he was keeping his head down and legs up, he would be facing north.
Question 67. Facing towards north Rana walked 30 m. Then he turned left and walked 50 m. Again he turned left and walked 30 m. Now how far is Rana from his starting place?
a. 80 m
b. 60 m
c. 20 m
d. 50 m
Answer: (d)
North: 30 m (OA).
Left turn: 50 m (AB).
Left turn: 30 m (BC).
OC, the distance between starting and final point = 50 m.
Question 68. Bablu started to walk from point A. After moving 12 m towards north he turned right and moved 10 m. Again he turned right and walked 12 m, then turning left walked 5 m. So far what distance has he travelled and in which direction is he?
a. 40 m, west
b. 29 m, south
c. 39 m, east
d. 35 m, north
Answer: (c)
North: 12 m (AB).
Right turn: 10 m (BC).
Right turn: 12 m (CD)
Left turn: 5 m (DE).
Total covered = 12m + 10m + 12m + 5m = 39 m and he is facing east.
Question 69. One day before sunset, Vandana and Chandan were talking with each other face to face standing in a chawk. If the shadow of Vandana falls on the right side of her then in which direction was Chanadan facing?
a. South-east
b. South
c. North
d. West
Answer: (b)
Since Vandana’s shadow is to her right, she’s facing North [The sun is in the west at sunset]. So, Chandan was facing the South.
Question 70. One morning after sunrise Atul and Rashmi were talking with each other standing face to face. If the shadow of Rashmi falls on the left side of Atul then in which direction Atul was facing?
a. North
b. South
c. East
d. West
Answer: (a)
The shadows are as shown, since it is morning after sunrise, the sun is at the east. So, Rashmi was facing South and Atul was facing North.
Question 71. Harish is taller than Sameer but shorter than Ambuj. Sumit is shorter than Vishal, Ambuj is shorter than Sumit. If all of them are made standing in increasing order (ascending order) of their heights, then who will stand at the end?
a. Harish
b. Ambuj
c. Sumit
d. Vishal
Answer: (d)
Harish is taller than Sameer but shorter than Ambuj ⇒ Ambuj > Harish > Sameer
Sumit is shorter than Vishal, Ambuj is shorter than Sumit ⇒ Vishal > Sumit > Ambuj.
If they were standing in ascending order i.e. Sameer < Harish < Ambuj < Sumit < Vishal, the one who stands at the end is Vishal.
Question 72 – 74: According to the information given below answer the following three questions:
Four girls A, B, C and D and three boys E, F and G are sitting simultaneously in such a way that any two boys or any two girls will not sit together.
[With the assumption that “simultaneously” in the paragraph above means that 4 girls and 3 boys are placed in the order of alphabets as they appear, all the below questions are solved.]
Question 72. Who will sit after B?
a. F
b. B
c. D
d. C
Answer: (a)
The order of sitting arrangement is A, E, B, F, C, G, D. So, F sits after B.
or
Since B is a girl, there has to be a boy next to her. So, from the given options, the answer is F.
Question 73. Who will sit between C and D?
a. A
b. D
c. G
d. C
Answer: (c)
The order of sitting arrangement is A, E, B, F, C, G, D. So, G sits between C and D.
or
Since C and D are girls, there has to be a boy between them. So, from the given options, the answer is G.
Question 74. Who will sit exactly in the middle?
a. F
b. G
c. C
d. B
Answer: (a)
The order of sitting arrangement is A, E, B, F, C, G, D. So, F sits exactly in the middle.
OR
If the assumption stated above is ignored, then there could be multiple answers, as the seating order may be any of the following with three different persons exactly in the middle.
(A, E, B, F, C, G, D), (A, G, B, E, C, F, D) or (A, E, B, G, C, F, D)
Question 75. If the age of Manohar is greater than that of Ankit and the age of Saroj is not greater than Ankit then whose age among the three is greater?
a. Saroj
b. Ankit
c. Manohar
d. Cannot be decided
Answer: (c)
If the age of Manohar is greater than that of Ankit ⇒ Manohar > Ankit
And the age of Saroj is not greater than Ankit ⇒ Ankit ≥ Saroj
So, Manohar > Ankit ≥ Saroj. And hence, among them, Manohar’s age is the greatest.
Question 76 to 80: Based on the following information answer the following questions:
A. In a school, classes of different subjects – Commerce, Mathematics, English, Hindi, Urdu and Sanskrit are held on weekdays and Sunday is a holiday.
B. Commerce class is on Friday and English is taught on Monday. Urdu class is after Hindi. Sanskrit is taught on Thursday after Urdu.
C. Mathematics class is one day before the holiday.
From the given data, the schedule is:
Monday → English
Tuesday → Hindi
Wednesday → Urdu
Thursday → Sanskrit
Friday → Commerce
Saturday → Mathematics
Question 76. Which subject is taught on Wednesday?
a. Hindi
b. Urdu
c. English
d. Sanskrit
Answer: (b)
From the schedule given, Urdu is taught on Wednesday.
Question 77. Which subject is taught before Hindi?
a. English
b. Urdu
c. Sanskrit
d. Mathematics
Answer: (a)
From the schedule given, English is taught before Hindi.
Question 78. The difference in how many days is there between Urdu and Commerce classes?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
d. 1
Answer: (d)
From the schedule given, Urdu is taught on Wednesday and Commerce on Friday. So, there is one day between the two classes.
Question 79. Mathematics class is just after which subject?
a. Hindi
b. Mathematics
c. Sanskrit
d. Commerce
Answer: (d)
From the schedule given, Mathematics class is just after Commerce.
Question 80. The classes start with which subject?
a. English
b. Hindi
c. Commerce
d. Sanskrit
Answer: (a)
From the schedule given, the classes start with the class on Monday i.e. English.
Question 81. On a table, the books of Physics, Mathematics, English and Hindi are arranged in such a way that the book of Hindi is just above the book of English and the book of Mathematics is just below that book of Physics. If the book of Physics is just kept below the book of English then which book is kept bottom-most?
a. Physics
b. English
c. Mathematics
d. Hindi
Answer: (c)
From the given data, the books are kept in this order:
So, mathematics book is kept at the bottommost position.
Question 82 – 84: Akram, Vikas, Karan and Dinesh are seated on chairs around a round table. It is seen that
The seating arrangement will be as shown:
Question 82. Who is seated at the left of Vikas?
a. Dinesh
b. Akram
c. Karan
d. Cannot be decided
Answer: (c)
From the seating arrangement, it can be seen that Karan is seated to the left of Vikas.
Question 83. Who is not seated at either right or left of Dinesh?
a. Vikas
b. Akram
c. Akram or Vikas
d. Karan
Answer: (d)
From the seating arrangement, it can be seen that to the right of Dinesh is Akram and to the left is Vikas. So, Karan is not seated at either right or left of Dinesh.
Question 84. Which statement is not correct?
a. Karan is seated in front of Dinesh
b. Akram is seated at the left of Karan
c. Vikas is not seated in front of Akram
d. Vikas is seated at the left of Dinesh
Answer: (c)
From the seating arrangement, it can be seen that all the statements are true except for the third. Vikas is indeed seated in front of Akram.
Question 85. Which of the following names will come second in the telephone directory?
a. Raman
b. Rana
c. Rahul
d. Rajan
Answer: (d)
Arranging in alphabetical order, the names are arranged as Rahul, Rajan, Raman and Rana. So, Ranjan comes second in the telephone directory.
Question 86 – 90 Six books are kept one after the other. History book is just above Civics book, which is just above the Mathematics book. Computer book is not at the topmost. There are four books in between English and Physics books. English book is at topmost and Computer book is just below the English book.
The order in which books are kept one above the other is as shown:
Question 86. Which book is in between Civics and Computer books?
a. Mathematics
b. English
c. History
d. Physics
Answer: (c)
It can be seen that history book is between civics and computer books.
Question 87. How many books are above the Physics book?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 5
Answer: (d)
From the arrangement of books shown, it can be seen that there are 5 books above the Physics book.
Question 88. Which book is at bottommost?
a. Computer
b. History
c. Civics
d. Physics
Answer: (d)
From the arrangement of books shown, it can be seen that the Physics book is at the bottommost.
Question 89. Which book is just below the History book?
a. Civics
b. Mathematics
c. Physics
d. Computer
Answer: (a)
From the arrangement of books shown, it can be seen that Civics book is just below the history book.
Question 90. How many books are there in between Computer and Physics books?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
Answer: (c)
From the arrangement of books shown, it can be seen that there are 3 books between Computer and Physics books.
Question 91. Find the missing number in the diagram
a. 46
b. 47
c. 48
d. 45
Answer: (a)
We can see that we fill the sum of the 4 numbers in the centre.
That is, 16+4+7+3 = 30
So, ? = 2+4+19+21 = 46.
Question 92. Find the missing number in the diagram :
a. 12
b. 8
c. 6
d. 7
Answer: (b)
We see that the numbers below add up to give the number on top. That is, 14 + 6 + 21 + 9 = 50
Similarly, 12 + ? + 38 + 2 = 60 ⇒ 52 + ? = 60 ⇒ ? = 8
Question 93. Find the missing number in the diagram
a. 45
b. 48
c. 46
d. 47
Answer: (b)
We can see that the central triangle is filled with the product of the other 3 numbers. That is 3 × 3 × 5 = 45.
Similarly, ? = 4 × 2 × 6 = 48
Question 94. Find the missing number in the diagram
a. 27
b. 29
c. 28
d. 30
Answer: ©
We can see 4 × 9 = 36. Similarly, ? = 4 × 7 = 28.
Question 95. Find the missing number in the diagram:
a. 18
b. 38
c. 28
d. 08
Answer: (a)
7×4 = 28
6×4 = 24
Similarly, 5×3 = 15 and 6×3 = ? = 18
Question 96. Which diagram will represent the relationship between Bihar, Jharkhand and Patna?
Answer: (c)
Bihar is a state with the capital as Patna. Jharkhand is another state. So, the relationship between Bihar, Jharkhand and Patna can be represented as:
Directions: Question 97 – 100: Study the following diagram and choose the correct alternatives given under each question:
Question 97. How many such cities are there which are neither capitals of states nor districts?
a. 6
b. 5
c. 4
d. 7
Answer: (b)
Cities which are neither capitals of states nor districts are represented by the area below. Hence, there are 5 such cities.
Question 98. How many such cities are there which are also capitals of states?
a. 4
b. 8
c. 6
d. 11
Answer: (a)
Cities which are also capitals of states are represented by the area below. Hence, there are 4 such cities.
Question 99. How many such districts are there which are cities as well as capitals of states?
a. 11
b. 8
c. 7
d. 6
Answer: (d)
Districts which are cities, as well as capitals of states, are represented by the area below. Hence, there are 6 such districts.
Question 100. How many such cities are there which are also districts?
a. 8
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2
Answer: (a)
Cities which are also districts are represented by the area below. Hence, there are 8 such cities.
Jharkhand NTSE 2020 Stage 1 SAT Paper
Paper: SAT
PHYSICS
Question 1. The object distance u, image distance v and focal length f for a spherical mirror are related as
a. av – au = 1/f
b. 1/u + 1/v = 1/f
c. v – u = f
d. v + u = f
Answer: (b)
Mirror formula for a spherical lens is given by 1/u + 1/v = 1/f
Question 2. The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should be the position of the object?
a. Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
b. At the centre of curvature
c. Beyond the centre of curvature
d. Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus
Answer: (d)
A concave mirror forms a virtual, erect and enlarged image when the object is placed between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
Question 3. The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the
a. Pupil
b. Retina
c. Ciliary muscles
d. Iris
Answer: (c)
The contraction and relaxation of the ciliary muscles are responsible for changing the thickness of the eye lens which inturn changes the focal length of an eye lens.
Question 4. At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit
a. Reduces substantially
b. Does not change
c. Increases heavily
d. Vary continuously
Answer: (c)
At the time of the short circuit, the resistance of the circuit decreases highly, causing a heavy increase in the current through the circuit.
Question 5. Three resistance of 4Ω, 5Ω and 20Ω are connected in parallel. Their combined resistance is
a. 2 Ω
b. 4 Ω
c. 5 Ω
d. 29 Ω
Answer: (a)
Equivalent resistance in parallel connection is given by 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 + 1/R3 +….
1/Rp = ¼ + ⅕ + 1/20 = 1/0.5
Rp = 2Ω
Question 6. The electrical appliances in the houses are connected with each other in
a. Parallel
b. Series
c. A combination of series and parallel circuits
d. None of these
Answer: (a)
Electrical appliances in the houses are connected in parallel because if one appliance is turned off or stops working due to a short circuit, the other appliances should still work efficiently.
Question 7. Electrical power is given by
a. P = V/I
b. P = 1/V
c. P = I2/V
d. P = VI
Answer: (d)
Electric power is voltage times ampere,
Question 8. SI unit of magnetic field is
a. Ampere
b. Henry
c. Tesla
d. Ohm
Answer: (c)
The SI unit of magnetic field is tesla (T).
Question 9. The direction of induced current in a circuit is given by
a. Fleming’s left hand rule
b. Fleming’s right hand rule
c. Right hand thumb rule
d. Ampere’s swimming rule
Answer: (b)
When a conductor in a circuit moves in a magnetic field, the direction of induced current in a circuit is given by Fleming’s right hand rule.
Question 10. No current flows between two charged bodies when connected, if they have same
a. Capacity
b. Potential
c. Charge
d. None of these
Answer: (b)
A potential difference between two points causes the flow of current. If potential is the same, no current will flow.
Question 11. The magnetic effect of electric current was discovered by
a. Faraday
b. Henry
c. Oersted
d. Maxwell
Answer: (c)
Magnetic effect of electric current was discovered by Oersted through his important experiment where he observed the deflection in a compass placed beside a current carrying conductor.
Question 12. The phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is
a. The process of charging a body
b. The process of generating magnetic field due to a current passing through a coil
c. The process of producing induced current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil
d. The process of rotating a coil of an electric motor
Answer: (c)
Electromagnetic induction is the process of inducing a current in a coil due to relative motion between a magnet and the coil.
Question 13. The human eye forms the image of an object at its
a. Cornea
b. iris
c. Pupil
d. Retina
Answer: (d)
The image of the object is formed on the Retina of the human eye.
CHEMISTRY
Question 14. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings?
a. Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced
b. Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced
c. No reaction takes place
d. Iron salt and water are produced
Answer: (a)
The reaction between dilute Hydrochloric acid and iron filings produce hydrogen gas and iron chloride. In the reaction iron displaces hydrogen from the aqueous solution of HCl and forms FeCl2(aq) with the evolution of hydrogen gas.This type of reactions are called displacement reactions. The reaction is as follows:
Fe (s) +2 HCl (aq) → FeCl2(aq) +H2(g)
Question 15. In the equation CuO + H2→ Cu + H2O, the substance reduced is
a. CuO
b. H2
c. Cu
d. None of these
Answer: (a)
Reduction is the removal of oxygen or addition of hydrogen from a chemical entity or decrease in oxidation number. In the given equation oxygen is being removed from CuO. Hence, it got reduced to Cu.
Question 16. Select the organic acid from the following:
a. Hydrochloric acid
b. Nitric acid
c. Sulphuric acid
d. Citric acid
Answer:(d)
Organic acids are organic compounds with acidic properties due to the presence of an acidic functional group(-COOH), SO2OH). The citric acid (C6H8O7) is an organic acid. Inorganic acids are compounds which comprise hydrogen and non-metallic elements or their groups. HCl, Nitric acid and sulphuric acid are some examples of inorganic acids.
Question 17. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
a. 1
b. 2
c. 5
d. 10
Answer: (d)
Red litmus turns blue with a basic solution. Basic solutions have a pH more than 7. Thus, the pH of the solution mentioned will be 10.
Question 18. Tooth enamel contains
a. Calcium carbonate
b. Calcium sulphate
c. Calcium chloride
d. Calcium phosphate
Answer: (d)
Tooth enamel contains calcium phosphate.
Question 19. Which one of the following compounds is not an ionic compound
a. Sodium chloride
b. Calcium chloride
c. Carbon tetrachloride
d. Magnesium chloride
Answer: (c)
Carbon tetrachloride(CCl4) has covalent bonds between the constituent atoms. Carbon has 4 valence electrons in its outer shell, It shares these electrons with 4 chlorine atoms to form the CCl4 molecule.
Question 20 Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
a. Carboxylic acid
b. Aldehyde
c. Ketones
d. Alcohol
Answer: (c)
Butanone is a four-carbon compound with a ketone(-CO-) as a functional group.
Question 21. Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6 has
a. 6 covalent bond
b. 7 covalent bond
c. 8 covalent bonds
d. 9 covalent bonds
Answer: (b)
Ethane with a molecular formula of C2H6 has 7 covalent bonds.
Question 22. Choose the metalloid from the following elements
a. Boron
b. Sodium
c. Chlorine
d. Aluminium
Answer: (a)
A metalloid is a substance that has properties which are in between that of metals and non-metals. Among the given elements Boron is a metalloid.
Question 23. Na, Mg, Al and S belong to the 3rd period of the periodic table. Out of these acidic oxide is formed by
a. Na
b. Mg
c. Al
d. S
Answer: (d)
Acidic oxides are formed by non-metals. Out of Na, Mg, Al and S, Sulphur is a non-metal and hence it will form acidic oxide.
Question 24. Which of the following compounds is used to repair fractured bone?
a. Na2CO3
b. CaOCl2
c. CaSO4.½ H2O
d. CaSO4.5H2O
Answer: (c)
The compound used to repair fractured bone is plaster of Paris represented by the formula: CaSO4.½ H2O. It is prepared by heating gypsum. The reaction is as follows:
CaSO4.2H2O → CaSO4.1/2H2O + 3/2H2O
Question 25. How many groups are there in the modern periodic table?
a. 7
b. 13
c. 18
d. 20
Answer: (c)
The modern periodic table has 18 groups in total.
Question 26. Pure gold is
a. 18 carat
b. 20 carat
c. 22 carat
d. 24 carat
Answer: (d)
Pure gold is 24 carat.
BIOLOGY
Question 27. The breakdown of Pyruvate to give carbon dioxide, water and energy take place in presence of oxygen in?
a. Cytoplasm
b. mitochondria
c. chloroplast
d. nucleus
Answer: (b)
In aerobic respiration, that is, in the presence of oxygen, pyruvate is broken down into carbon dioxide, water, and energy in mitochondria via Krebs cycle.
Question 28. The gap between two neurons is called
a. Dendrite
b. Synapse
c. axon
d. impulse
Answer: (b)
The gap between two neurons is known as a synapse. It facilitates the transmission of information from one neuron to the other.
Question 29. Rings of cartilage are present in
a. Oesophagus
b. Bile duct
c. Throat
d. Small intestine
Answer: (c)
Rings of cartilage is present in the throat. The C-shaped rings of cartilage prevent the collapse of the trachea (windpipe) during exhalation.
Question 30. The xylem in plants is responsible for
a. Transport of water
b. Transport of food
c. Transport of amino acids
d. Transport of oxygen
Answer: (a)
Xylem is the vascular tissue of the plant responsible for the transport of water and minerals from the roots to all parts of the plant in unidirectional flow.
Question 31. Which plant hormone causes bending of shoots towards light?
a. Auxins
b. Gibberellin
c. Cytokinin
d. Abscisic acid
Answer: (a)
Auxin is the plant hormone which causes the bending of the shoot towards the light source. The darker side of the stem/shoot contains a higher concentration of auxin causing the plant cells on that side to grow more resulting in bending of the stem towards the light.
Question 32. Which of the following plant hormones causes wilting of leaves
a. Gibberellin
b. Cytokinin
c. Auxin
d. Abscisic acid
Answer: (d)
Abscisic acid is a plant growth-inhibiting hormone which causes wilting of leaves.
Question 33. Human growth hormone is produced in
a. Thyroid
b. adrenal
c. pancreas
d. Pituitary
Answer: (d)
Human growth hormones are produced by the pituitary gland which is located at the base of the brain.
Question 34. Insulin is produced by
a. Pituitary
b. pancreas
c. Thyroid
d. adrenal
Answer: (b)
Insulin is a hormone produced by the beta-cells of islets of Langerhans present in the pancreas.
Question 35. The example of a unisexual flower is
a. Hibiscus
b. Mustard
c. Papaya
d. None of these
Answer: (c)
Papaya has unisexual flowers. Unisexual flowers contain either the male or the female reproductive organs.
Question 36. The transfer of pollen grains from the anther to stigma is termed as
a. Fertilisation
b. Pollination
c. Ovulation
d. Double fertilisation
Answer: (b)
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a flower.
Question 37. Fat is digested by the enzyme
a. Amylase
b. Pepsin
c. Trypsin
c. Lipase
Answer: (d)
Fats are broken down into fatty acids and glycerol by the action of lipase.
Question 38. Genetic material is carried out by a long chain of molecules made up of
a. Enzymes
b. DNA
c. Amino acids
d. Protein
Answer: (b)
Genetic material is stored in DNA, which is a polymer of nucleotides having phosphate groups, and nitrogenous bases attached to deoxyribose sugar joined together by phosphodiester bonds.
Question 39. Who proposed the law of inheritance
a. Darwin
b. Mendel
c. Lamarck
d. Morgan
Answer: (b)
Johann Gregor Mendel proposed the Laws of Inheritance, namely Law of Dominance, Law of Segregation and Law of Independent Assortment.
Question 40. Changes in the non-reproductive tissues caused by environmental factors
a. Are inheritable
b. Are not inheritable
c. Both 1 and 2
d. None of these
Answer: (b)
Changes in any tissue of the body due to environmental reasons will not be inherited unless they make changes in the genetic material of the germ cells.
MATHEMATICS
Question 41. In a mixture, the ratio of milk and water is 3 : 2. If there is 5 litre milk more than water the quantity of milk in the mixture is
a. 10 litre
b. 15 litre
c. 20 litre
d. 25 litre
Answer: (b)
Let the quantity of water be 2x litre and quantity of milk = 3x
Given that, 3x = 2x + 5
x = 5 litre
Milk = 3x = 15 litre
Question 42. In x = 2, y = 3 is a solution of a pair of lines 2x – 3y + a = 0 and 2x + 3y – b + 2 = 0 then
a. a = 3b
b. a + 3b = 0
c. 3a + b = 0
d. 3a = b
Answer: (d)
2x -3y + a = 0, 2x + 3y – b + 2 = 0
The two linear equations must satisfy the equation at x = 2, y = 3
2(2) – 3(3) + a = 0
a = 5
And
2(2) +3(3) – b + 2= 0
b = 15
So, b = 3a
Question 43. In a right triangle ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 12 cm. ∠A is given by
a. 90o
b. 45o
c. 30o
d. 60o
Answer: (c)
ABC, AB = 6√3 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 12 cm
A = 30o
Question 44. D and E are the mid-points of the sides AB and AC of ∆ABC. If DE measures 3 cm, then the side BC measures
a. 6 cm
b. 7 cm
c. 8 cm
d. 9 cm
Answer: (a)
According to the midpoint theorem in triangles, the line joining the midpoints of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third side and half its length.
Hence, BC = 2 x 3 = 6 cm
Question 45. The mean and median of data are respectively 20 and 22. The value of mode is
a. 20
b. 26
c. 22
d. 21
Answer: (b)
Mean = 20
Median = 22
Mode = 3(Median) – 2(Mean) = 3(22) – 2(20) = 26
Question 46. The tenth term from the end of the A.P. 4, 9, 14,……, 254 is
a. 214
b. 209
c. 208
d. 204
Answer: (b)
The tenth term from last can be written as if the series starts from 254 with a common difference of -5
Hence, T10 from last = 254 – 5(10-1) = 254 – 45 = 209
Question 47. Two vertices of a triangle are (3, 5) and (-4, -5). If the centroid of the triangle is (4, 3), find the third vertex.
a. 13, 9
b. 9, 13
c. 13, -9
d. -9, -13
Answer: (a)
In the triangle ABC, with centroid O, the coordinates are
A(3,5), B(-4,-5), O(4,3)
Let the third vertex be C(x,y)
x-1 = 12, y = 9
x = 13, y = 9
Question 48. If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of , then is equal to:
a. 20o
b. 30o
c. 40o
d. 50o
Answer: (c)
APO = OPB
APO + OPB = 100o
APO = 50o
OA⟂PA
AOP + 50o + 90o = 180o
AOP = 40o
Question 49. A square is circumscribing a circle. The side of the square is 14 cm. Find the area of the square not included in the circle.
a. 21 cm2
b. 42 cm2
c. 48 cm2
d. 196 cm2
Answer: (b)
Side of square = 14 cm
Radius of circle = 7 cm
Area of square = 196 cm2
Area of circle = 𝜋r2 = 22×7 = 154 cm2
Area that is shaded = 196 – 154 = 42 cm2
Question 50. If the angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at the distances of 3 m and 12 m from the base of the tower in the same straight line with it are complementary, then the height of the tower (in m) is
a. 36
b. 60
c. 6
d. 100
Answer: (c)
BD = 3 m
BC = 12 m
Given that, ⦣BDA+⦣BCA = 90º.
Let ⦣BDA = x
⦣BCA = 90 – x
tan x = AB/3 …(i)
tan (90 – x) = AB/12
Cot x = AB/12 …(ii)
(i) x (ii)
(tan x)(cot x) = AB/3. AB/12
AB2 = 36
AB = 6m
Question 51. The surface area of two spheres is in the ratio 1 : 4. Then, the ratio of their volumes is
a. 1 : 4
b. 1 : 8
c. 1 : 16
d. 1 : 64
Answer: (b)
Surface area of sphere = 4𝜋r2
Given that,
Ratio of volumes =
Question 52. The slant height of a bucket is 26 cm. The diameter of upper and lower circular ends are 36 cm and 16 cm. The height of the bucket is
a. 22 cm
b. 24 cm
c. 10 cm
d. 25 cm
Answer: (b)
Given that, l = 26 cm
D1 = 36 cm, r1 = 18 cm
D2 = 16 cm, r2 = 8 cm
Height of bucket, h = ?
h2 = (262 – 102)
h = 5761/2 = 24 cm
Question 53. Half of which number is 18 more than its one fifth (⅕ th)?
a. 48
b. 52
c. 60
d. 64
Answer: (c)
Let the required number be N
Given that, N/2= N/5 + 18
3N/10 = 18
N = 60
Question 54. Sum of two numbers is 25 and their product is 154. The greater number is
a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
Answer: (d)
Let the numbers be a and b
Given that, a + b = 25
ab = 154 = 2 x 77 = 14 x 11 = 22 x 7
The only pair of numbers satisfying a+b = 25 is 14 and 11.
The greater number is 14.
Question 55. If A and B together can complete a work in 12 days and B and C can complete it in 15 days and C and A can complete in 20 days, then in how many days can A alone complete the said work?
a. 20 days
b. 30 days
c. 40 days
d. 60 days
Answer: (b)
A and B complete work in 12 days
In 1 day A and B together complete 1/12 th of work
Similarly,
In 1 day B and C together completer 1/15 thof work
In 1 day A and C together completer 1/20 thof work
In 1 day, A,B and C together complete
So, in 1 day A alone completes the work 1/10 – 1/15 = 1/30
A takes 30 days to complete the work alone
Question 56. The diagonals of a rhombus are 15 m and 20 m long. Find its area
a. 150 m2
b. 300 m2
c. 450m2
d. None of these
Answer: (a)
The diagonals are 15 m and 20 m for a rhombus.
Area of the rhombus is given as A = A = ½ × d2 × d2
Where d1 and d2 are the lengths of the diagonals
A = ½ × 15 × 20 = 150 m2
Question 57. The wall around a semicircular garden is 180 m long. The area of the garden is
a. 1800 m2
b. 1900 m2
c. 1925 m2
d. 1825 m2
Answer: (c)
The wall surrounding the garden is made up of the diameter and circumference of curved part of the semi-circle
Therefore, 180 = 𝜋r + 2r
Area of garden =
Question 58. If the measure of each interior angle of a regular polygon is 135o then the number of its sides is
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8
Answer: (d)
If each interior angle measures 135o, each exterior angle measures (180 – 135 = 45o)
The sum of the exterior angles of a polygon is always equal to 360o.
Therefore, the total number of angles in a polygon = number of sides of a polygon = 360/45 = 8.
Question 59. The lengths of parallel sides of a trapezium are 60 m and 80 m respectively. If the distance of its parallel sides is 20 m, find the area of the trapezium.
a. 1200 m2
b. 1400 m2
c. 1800 m2
d. 2400 m2
Answer: (b)
Area of trapezium = ½ × (distance between parallel sides)(sum of lengths of parallel sides)
A = ½ × 20 × (60 + 80) = 1400 m2
Question 60. Find the area of a parallelogram of which a diagonal measures 65 cm and of which two adjacent sides measure 70 cm and 75 cm respectively?
a. 4000 cm2
b. 4200 cm2
c. 4800 cm2
d. None of these
Answer: (b)
Area of trapezium = 2 x Area of one of the triangles made by its diagonal.
Area of triangle by Heron’s Formula
Area of parallelogram = 2 x 2100 = 4200 cm2.
SOCIAL SCIENCE
Question 61. Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?
a. Treaty of Versailles
b. Treaty of vienna
c. Treaty of Constantinople
d. Treaty of Lausanne
Answer: (c)
Greece came under the control of Ottoman Empire by the end of the fifteenth century. The Treaty of Constantinople in 1832 recognized Greece as an independent nation.
Question 62. Which of the following societies was founded by Giuseppe Mazzini?
a. Carbonari
b. Young Italy
c. Young Europe
d. Jacobin Club
Answer: (b) or (c)
Giuseppe Mazzini was an Italian revolutionary. He founded two secret societies, Young Italy in Marseilles and Young Europe in Berne to spread his ideas.
Question 63. When did Ho Chi Minh form vietnamese Communist Party?
a. 1930
b. 1931
c. 1932
d. 1934
Answer: (a)
Ho Chi Minh formed the Communist Party of Vietnam in 1930 CE. It remains the dominant political institution within Vietnam.
Question 64. In which famous battle were the French defeated?
a. Nghe An
b. Dien Bien Phu
c. Ha Tinh
d. Phan Boi
Answer: (b)
The French were defeated in the Battle of Dien Bien Phu. The battle took place in Dien Bien Phu, a city in the northwestern region of Vietnam, in 1954 CE.
Question 65. The resolution of ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was adopted at which Congress session?
a. Karachi
b. Lucknow
c. Lahore
d. Haripur
Answer: (c)
The resolution of ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was adopted at the Lahore Congress session in December 1929. Jawaharlal Nehru presided over this session.
Question 66. In which year did the “Great Depression” start?
a. 1928
b. 1936
c. 1929
d. 1981
Answer: (c)
The ‘Great Depression’ started in 1929 and lasted till the mid-1930s. This period was marked with tragic declines in production, employment, incomes, and trade.
Question 67. IMF stands for
a. Inland Maintenance Force
b. International Military Force
c. International Monetary Fund
d. Indian Monetary Factor
Answer: (c)
The IMF stands for International Monetary Fund. Established in 1947, it aimed at dealing wth external surpluses and deficits of its member countries and stability of the international monetary system.
Question 68. The first printing press was developed by
a. Marco Polo
b. Kitagawa Utamaro
c. Johannes Gutenberg
d. Erasmus
Answer: (c)
Johannes Gutenberg perfected the first printing press by 1448 CE. The first book he printed was the Bible.
Question 69. Who among the following was the leader of Dalits?
a. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b. Jyotiba Phule
c. Mahatma Gandhi
d. Sitaram Raju
Answer: (a)
Dr B.R. Ambedkar is the most famous and the most important leader of Dalits in pre and post Independent India. Pre-Independence he organised the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930 and also represented their interests at the Round Table conferences. He played a major role in abolishing Untouchability, by imbibing egalitarian principles in the constitution of India.
Question 70. Ravi Verma was a
a. Painter
b. Calligraphist
c. Scientist
d. Colonist
Answer: (a)
Raja Ravi Varma was a painter. In his paintings, he visualised scenes from the Indian epics and literature.
Question 71. Which of the following novels was too moralising?
a. Chandrakanta
b. Pariksha Guru
c. Padmarag
d. Indulekha
Answer: (b)
Pariksha Guru, a Hindi novel, was considered to be too moralising. It was written by Lala Srinivas Das.
Question 72. Which European power first acquired control over Bombay?
a. Dutch
b. English
c. French
d. Portuguese
Answer: (d)
The Portuguese were the first European power to acquire control over Bombay. It was later ceded to the British crown and eventually leased to the East India Company.
Question 73. Who among the following was known as ‘Frontier Gandhi’?
a. Mahatma Gandhi
b. Jawaharlal Nehru
c. Abdul Gaffar Khan
d. Bhagat Singh
Answer: (c)
Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan is also known as the ‘Frontier Gandhi’. He resisted British colonialism in the Indian subcontinent. His non-violent means of resistance and close friendship with Mahatma Gandhi earned him the nickname of ‘Frontier Gandhi’.
Question 74. Which of the following did not take part in World War I?
a. England
b. Spain
c. Germany
d. France
Answer: (b)
World War I began in 1914 CE and lasted till 1918 CE. Spain was not a part of the war.
Question 75. Who among the following set up the first jute Mill in Calcutta?
a. Dinshaw Petit
b. J N Tata
c. Seth Hukumchand
d. Dwarakanath Tagore
Answer: (c)
Seth Hukumchand was a Marwari businessman. He set up the first Indian jute mill in 1917 in modern-day Kolkata.
Question 76. What percent area of the whole country does plain occupy?
a. 27%
b. 43%
c. 30%
d. 50%
Answer: (b)
India has a variety of relief features like mountains, plateaus, plains and islands. The plain areas occupy around 43% of the total area of India. It facilitates agriculture, industry and other activities.
Question 77. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
a. Intensive cultivation
b. Over-irrigation
c. Deforestation
d. Overgrazing
Answer: (b)
Over irrigation is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab. Over irrigation leads to waterlogging. As a result, it increases the salinity and alkalinity of the soil.
Question 78. Regions of ______ soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated
a. Balck
b. Red and yellow
c. Laterite
d. Alluvial
Answer: (d)
Alluvial soils are very fertile in nature. Due to its high fertility, regions of alluvial soils are intensively cultivated and densely populated.
Question 79. Cropping season from November to May is called
a. Kharif
b. Rabi
c. Zaid
d. None of these
Answer: (b)
India has two major cropping seasons, Kharif and Rabi. The season of the south-west monsoon is called the Kharif cropping season. The Rabi cropping season is from November to May when the monsoon retreats.
Question 80. “Temples of Modern India” Was the name given to dams by
a. Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
b. Mahatma Gandhi
c. Rabindranath Tagore
d. Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer: (a)
After independence, India emphasised a lot on the development of basic infrastructure and economy. In that context, Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime minister of India, termed dams as the “Temple of Modern India”.
Question 81. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area?
a. Shifting Agriculture
b. Horticulture
c. Plantation Agriculture
d. Intensive Agriculture
Answer: (c)
In the case of plantations, a single crop is grown on a large area. It is a type of commercial farming. This type of farming requires large amounts of labour and capital. The major crops grown are Tea, coffee, sugarcane, cashew, rubber, banana or cotton.
Question 82. Limestone is found in which rocks?
a. Igneous
b. Sedimentary
c. Metamorphic
d. None of these
Answer: (b)
Limestone is the primary raw material for cement production. Moreover, It is essential for smelting iron ore in the blast furnace. It is found in Sedimentary rocks composed mainly of calcium carbonates.
Question 83. Which agency markets steel for the public sector plants
a. HAIL
b. TATA Steel
c. SAIL
d. MNCC
Answer: (c)
SAIL (Steel Authority of India Limited) is an Indian state-owned steel making company. It is owned and operated by the Government of India as a public sector undertaking. It is one of the largest steel producers in India.
Question 84. Which one of the following countries import iron ore from India?
a. USA
b. Japan
c. Russia
d. China
Answer: (b)
India exports iron ore to various countries such as Japan, South Korea etc. Japan is among the major iron ore importers from India. Iron ore from various mining ranges like Bailadila range in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh is exported to Japan & South Korea.
Question 85. Which mode of transportation reduces transhipment losses and delays?
a. Railways
b. Roadways
c. Pipelines
d. Waterways
Answer: (c)
The pipeline transport helps in reducing the transhipment losses and delays. It allows for a continuous flow of goods with a minimum risk of accidents. It can be constructed in difficult terrains too, unlike roads or railway lines.
Question 86. Which movement has successfully resisted deforestation in the Himalayas?
a. Beej Bachao Andolan
b. Chipko Movement
c. Navdanya
d. Joint Forest Management
Answer: (b)
Chipko movement was started in the Garhwal Himalayan region of Uttarakhand in 1973. It was a people’s revolt against deforestation. They protested against commercial logging operations and deforestation.
Question 87. The habitat of Lions in India is
a. Gir forest
b. Simlipal
c. Ranthambore
d. None of these
Answer: (a)
There are only a few hundreds of Asiatic lions in the wild, and as of now, they are only found in the Gir Forest, India.
Question 88. The first Earth Summit was held at
a. Montreal
b. Rio-de-Janeiro
c. New York
d. London
Answer: (b)
The first Earth Summit was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. More than 100 heads of the states met in Rio de Janeiro, to discuss problems related to environmental protection and ways to achieve socio-economic development.
Question 89. Which one of the following is a Kharif crop?
a. Paddy
b. Wheat
c. Watermelon
d. Gram
Answer: (a)
Paddy is a Kharif crop. It is also called a Monsoon crop, as paddy cultivation happens in the monsoon season. On the other hand, wheat is a Rabi crop which is cultivated in the winter season.
Question 90. The place of India in respect of wheat cultivation is
a. Second
b. Third
c. Fourth
d. Fifth
Answer: (a)
India is the second-largest producer of rice, wheat, sugarcane, cotton and groundnuts, as well as the second-largest fruit and vegetable producer. The total area under the wheat crop is about 29.8 million hectares in the country.
Question 91. The present structure of Panchayati Raj is based on the constitutional Amendment Act
a. 65th
b. 73rd
c. 74th
d. 76th
Answer: (b)
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 establishes the structure of Panchayati Raj in India. It Act emphasises Gram Sabha as the foundational body of Panchayati Raj. The Act added part IX to the Constitution of India which consists of 16 articles.
Question 92. A person who does not discriminate others on the basis of religious beliefs is
a. Feminist
b. Communist
c. Casteist
d. Secularist
Answer: (d)
Secularism is a political idea which separates religion from the state. Ideally, secularism discourages the state from involving in religious matters and does not allow religion to influence the activities of the state. Secularism is against the idea of discrimination based on religion. Therefore, the secularist is a person who does not discriminate against others on the basis of religious beliefs.
Question 93. The best form of government for promoting dignity and freedom of the individual is
a. Democracy
b. Dictatorship
c. Army Rule
d. None of these
Answer: (a)
Democracy is a form of government in which people directly elect representatives of their choice. Equality and liberty form the core principles of democracy. Freedom and dignity of an individual are ensured in a democratic country. For example, in India article 19 and article 21 ensures freedom and dignity to individuals.
Question 94. Number of Lok Sabha Members from Jharkhand is
a. 12
b. 13
c. 14
d. 15
Answer: (c)
The Lok Sabha or the lower house of the parliament totally consists of 552 members, out of which 14 members are directly elected from the state of Jharkhand to voice the local concerns in the Parliament of India.
Question 95. The Chairperson of a Municipal corporation is
a. Deputy Commissioner
b. Sarpanch
c. Mayor
d. MLA of the area
Answer: (c)
The Mayor is the Chairperson of Municipal Corporation. He is bestowed with the responsibility to preside at council meetings and perform certain functions. The Mayor is also recognised as the first citizen of that municipal area.
Question 96. Which is considered to be one of the most important attributes for comparing the development of countries?
a. Health and Education
b. Infrastructure
c. Per capita income
d. Growth of technology
Answer: (c)
Per capita income is the amount of money earned by a person per year in a given region. For a nation, Per capita income is national income divided by its total population. Per capita income of a nation helps in evaluating its standard of living and development which can be compared with other nations.
Question 97. Which sector of the Indian economy has grown the most over thirty years?
a. Primary sector
b. Secondary sector
c. Tertiary sector
d. None of these
Answer: (c)
Tertiary sector refers to various services that support the primary and secondary sectors. The tertiary sector boom is attributed to the increasing market demand, rise in population, and the improved living standards. Services like transportation, telecommunications, education and healthcare have become mandatory in a highly demanding society.
Question 98. Reserve Bank of India grants loan to
a. General public
b. Private companies
c. Commercial banks
d. All of these
Answer: (c)
The RBI is the central bank of India. It works as the official banker to the central and state governments. It is also a banker to banks as it maintains the banking accounts of other scheduled banks. The Reserve bank of India also grants loans to commercial banks, as it is the lender of last resort.
Question 99. Human Development Report is published by
a. UNDP
b. World Bank
c. Government of the country
d. Central bank of the country
Answer: (a)
The Human Development Index is a measure of development and standard of living. It is measured in terms of life expectancy, access to education and healthcare and per capita income. HDI is measured by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) every year.
Question 100. In which of the following years, was the Consumer Protection Act passed?
a. 1989
b. 1980
c. 1985
d. 1986
Answer: (d)
The Consumer Protection Act was passed in 1986. It seeks to empower consumers with the right to consume quality products and services. It provides a platform for consumers to raise concerns and provides institutional access to approach courts and file cases against unfair practices in the market.
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